Beginning in July 2026,* Maryland will adopt the NextGen UBE Uniform Bar ExaminationTM (NextGen UBE), a 1.5-day, computer-based exam combining multiple-choice questions (MCQs), integrated question sets, and performance tasks.
*Up until February 2026, Maryland administered the Legacy Uniform Bar Examination (UBE®), which was divided into 3 sections: the Multistate Bar Examination (MBE®), the Multistate Performance Test (MPT®), and the Multistate Essay Examination (MEE®).
Maryland Bar Exam Structure
The exam is typically administered on the last Tuesday and Wednesday of July and February. The NextGen UBE replaces the 3 components (MPT, MEE, and MBE) with 3 integrated sessions, spanning 1.5 days (9 hours total).
| Maryland 2026 Bar Exam Structure1 | |||
|---|---|---|---|
| Exam | Tuesday | Wednesday | Total Duration |
|
NextGen UBE (Launches July 2026) |
Morning: 40 MCQs + 2 integrated Q sets + 1 performance task | Morning: 40 MCQs + 2 integrated Q sets + 1 performance task | 9 hours (6 hours on day 1 and 3 hours on day 2) |
| Afternoon: 40 MCQs + 2 integrated Q sets + 1 performance task | - | ||
Source: Official Examinees’ Guide to the NextGen UBE, July 2026–February 20271
Train with NextGen-style MCQs and build confidence early.
Maryland Bar Exam Subjects and Topics
The NextGen UBE in Maryland evaluates your understanding of legal principles and practical lawyering skills. In 2026, the exam subjects and topics are listed below.
July 2026 and onward – NextGen UBE (3 integrated sections over 1.5 days)
Maryland NextGen Bar Exam 20262
There are a few Maryland Bar Exam changes in 2026. While the exam will be administered over 1.5 days, the NextGen UBE changes what is tested from the legacy exam. The NextGen UBE emphasizes a balance of core legal subjects and practical lawyering skills, integrating them across question types instead of separating them into different sections.
| Foundational Concepts and Principles | Foundational Skills Tested |
|---|---|
| Business Associations and Relationships | Legal research |
| Civil Procedure | Legal writing |
| Constitutional Law | Issue spotting and analysis |
| Contract Law | Investigation and evaluation |
| Criminal Law and Constitutional Protections of Accused Persons | Client counseling and advising |
| Evidence | Negotiation and dispute resolution |
| Real Property | Client relationship and management |
| Torts |
This shift means that from July 2026 onward, Maryland candidates will prepare for doctrinal law and the practical skills required of a newly licensed attorney.
UWorld NextGen UBE Sample Questions
Quality speaks for itself. Try some of our free multiple-choice sample questions below.
Your client purchased a new home from a real estate development corporation. When your client was first viewing the home, the corporation sent a real estate agent to show your client the property and answer your client's questions. The agent told your client that the home's electrical wiring had been updated to comply with a new local ordinance. However, after purchasing the home, your client discovered that the electrical wiring was not updated. Your client had to replace all the wiring, incurring significant expense.
Your client now seeks your advice as to whether she can hold the corporation liable rather than the real estate agent.
Which of the following search term(s) would be the most likely to produce resources that will answer the client's question?
- Apparent authority.
- Corporate liability for promoter's conduct.
- Independent contractors.
- Ratification.
Explanation:
A principal is vicariously liable for a tort committed by an agent when the agent's apparent authority enabled him to commit the tort. An agent has apparent authority when:
- a third person reasonably believes that the agent acts with actual authority and
- this belief is traceable to a manifestation by the principal.
Here, the client wants to know whether she can hold the corporation vicariously liable for the real estate agent's conduct. The client likely believed that the agent acted with actual authority since the corporation sent the agent to show the property and answer her questions. And this belief is traceable to the corporation's conduct (i.e., sending the agent). Therefore, researching "apparent authority" is most likely to produce resources that will answer the client's question.
(Choice B) Prior to the formation of a corporation, a promoter engages in activities to bring the corporation into existence as a business entity. Here, the real estate agent is not a promoter, so researching corporate liability for a promoter's conduct will not be helpful.
(Choice C) A principal is generally not liable for the torts of independent contractors, but it can be when the independent contractor has apparent authority. Therefore, this search term will be less helpful than "apparent authority."
(Choice D) A principal is directly liable to a third person harmed by an agent's conduct if the principal ratifies the agent's conduct. But ratification requires that the principal affirm a prior act that was done or purportedly done on the principal's behalf (not seen here).
Educational objective:
Principals are vicariously liable for torts committed by agents whose apparent authority enabled them to commit the tort. Apparent authority exists if a third person reasonably believes that the agent acted with actual authority and this belief is traceable to a manifestation by the principal.
- Restatement (Third) of Agency § 7.08 (Am. L. Inst. 2006) (explaining apparent authority).
Your firm represents a plaintiff who resides in a city in the Central District of State D and works in the Eastern District of State D. The plaintiff alleges that her federal legal rights were violated in a city in the Western District of State D by three defendants. The first defendant resides in a city in the Northern District of State C. The second defendant resides in a town in the Central District of State C. The third defendant resides in the Southern Distrct of State C. The plaintiff wants to resolve all of her claims against both defendants in a single action. Your supervisor has asked you to research which districts would be a proper venue as to all the parties.
You review the relevant federal statute, which provides as follows:
28 U.S. Code § 1391
A civil action may be brought in:
(1) a judicial district in which any defendant resides, if all defendants are residents of the State in which the district is located;
(2) a judicial district in which a substantial part of the events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred, or a substantial part of property that is the subject of the action is situated; or
(3) if there is no district in which an action may otherwise be brought as provided in this section, any judicial district in which any defendant is subject to the court's personal jurisdiction with respect to such action.
Which of the following districts would NOT accomplish the plaintiff's goal?
Select two response options.
- The Central District of State C.
- The Central District of State D.
- The Eastern District of State D.
- The Northern District of State C.
- The Southern District of State C.
- The Western District of State D.
Explanation:
A suit must be brought in a proper venue—i.e., the geographic location of specific federal districts in which a claim may be heard. There may be multiple federal districts within a state, and venue may be proper in more than one district. That is because venue is proper in any district where:
-
any defendant resides, as long as all defendants reside in the same state (i.e., residency-based venue)
-
a substantial part of the events that gave rise to the suit occurred (i.e., events-based venue) or a substantial part of the property at issue is located (i.e., property-based venue) or
-
any defendant is subject to the court's personal jurisdiction—but only if neither of the above provisions applies (i.e., fallback provision).
Here, all three defendants are residents of State C. As a result, venue is proper in any district in State C where one of the defendants resides—i.e., the Central, Northern, and Southern Districts of State C (Choices A, D, and E). Venue is also proper in the Western District of State D, because the plaintiff alleges that the defendants violated her federal rights there (Choice F). Therefore, venue is proper in any of these three districts.
But since the plaintiff's residence or place of employment are not bases for venue, venue is not proper in the Central or Eastern Districts of State D. Therefore, filing the complaint in those districts would not accomplish the plaintiff's goal.
Educational objective:
Venue is proper in any federal district where (1) any defendant resides, as long as all defendants reside in the same state, (2) a substantial part of the events occurred or a substantial part of the property at issue is located, or (3) any defendant is subject to the court's personal jurisdiction (if the first two provisions do not apply).
- 28 U.S.C. § 1391(b) (venue).
A customer entered into a valid contract with an upholsterer to handmake 500 pillows for $75 each, using specific materials selected by the customer. Before beginning the project, the upholsterer arranged for her former business partner, who is similarly skilled, to perform the contract. The customer did not object to the substitution, and the contract is silent on whether the upholsterer can substitute her performance.
The partner made the pillows but did not use the materials selected by the customer. Upon completing the pillows, the partner delivered them to the customer, who has now filed a breach-of-contract action against the upholsterer. The upholsterer approaches you for legal advice.
Which of the following legal topics is least likely to affect whether the customer will succeed in her claim against the upholsterer?
- Delegation of duties.
- Material breach.
- Novation.
- Promissory estoppel.
A party's contractual obligations are generally delegable to a third party,* but the delegator remains liable to the other party to the contract. Consequently, the other party can recover against the delegator if the delegatee fails to perform (thereby materially breaching the contract) unless the other party released the delegator under the original agreement. This release can occur through novation.
A novation is a substituted contract in which the parties agree to replace an original contracting party with a new party. A novation may be express or implied after delegation if (1) the delegator repudiates liability to the other party and (2) the other party accepts the delegatee's performance of the contract without reserving rights against the delegator. However, mere consent to a delegation does not amount to novation.
Here, whether the upholsterer could delegate her obligations under the contract to her former business partner will impact the customer's breach-of-contract claim against the upholsterer (Choice A). The customer did not object to the delegation, but there is no indication that she released the upholsterer from liability. Therefore, whether novation occurred is also important (Choice C). Lastly, it is important to determine whether the partner committed a material breach by failing to use the materials selected by the customer (Choice B).
However, promissory estoppel has no relevance to the upholsterer's claim. Promissory estoppel renders a promise binding when the promisor knows the promise will induce substantial reliance by the promisee, and the failure to enforce the promise will cause substantial injustice. It is a consideration "substitute," so this doctrine does not apply when there is a valid contract (as seen here). Therefore, this legal topic will have no impact on the customer's claim.
*Delegation is not permitted when the other contracting party has a substantial interest in having the delegating party perform (e.g., because the delegator has a special skill) or delegation is prohibited under the contract—neither of which is seen here.
Educational objective:
Delegation of contractual obligations does not release the delegator from liability unless the other party agrees to a novation, which is the substitution of a new contract for an old one when a party to the original contract agrees to release the delegator and substitute a new party.
- Restatement (Second) of Contracts § 319 (Am. L. Inst. 1981) (explaining the effect of delegation on the delegator's duties and rights).
- Restatement (Second) of Contracts § 280 (Am. L. Inst. 1981) (stating that a novation is a contract that substitutes a new contract for an old one, extinguishing the original duties and rights).
In response to recent unusual earthquake activity, a large city has enacted an ordinance requiring the permanent placement of seismographic equipment in the basements of 20 randomly selected commercial buildings throughout the city as part of the creation of an early-warning network. Although the owners of the buildings will not be compensated, the cost to purchase and install the equipment is to be borne by a private university that will operate the early-warning network. Additionally, the ordinance does not provide a means for owners to challenge their selection.
The owner of one building that has been randomly selected as a site for the equipment has hired you to represent him in challenging the ordinance as unconstitutional.
Which provisions of the U.S. Constitution provide you with the strongest grounds on which to challenge the ordinance?
Select two response options.
- Dormant commerce clause.
- Due process clause.
- Equal protection clause.
- Supremacy clause.
- Takings clause.
- Tenth Amendment
Explanation:
| Issue-Spotting Checklist: Individual Rights | |
|---|---|
| Subtopic | State Actor's Actions |
| Substantive Due Process* | Deprive individuals of fundamental right (e.g., privacy, vote, travel, bear arms) |
| Procedural Due Process | Deprive individual of protected life, liberty, or property interest |
| Equal Protection* | Treat particular group or classification of individuals differently |
| Takings | Take private property for public purposes via seizure, damage, recharacterization, or regulation |
| Ex Post Facto Law | Retroactively change criminal or penal law |
| First Amendment Freedoms |
|
* If a fundamental right is being denied to all persons, discuss substantive due process. If the right is being denied to only a particular class of persons, discuss equal protection.
The Fifth Amendment takings clause, which is applicable to the states through the Fourteenth Amendment due process clause, bars the government from taking private property unless:
- the taking is for a public use and
- the owner receives just compensation—i.e., the property's fair market value.
A physical taking occurs when the government (or a third party authorized by the government) permanently and physically occupies private property—regardless of the public interest it may serve. Additionally, the Fourteenth Amendment due process clause requires the government to provide notice and an opportunity to be heard when depriving a person of a life, liberty or property interest.
Here, the ordinance authorized a private university (third party) to place seismographic equipment on the owners' land to create an early-warning network for earthquake activity (public use). Because this would result in a permanent and physical occupation of the owners' buildings, you can challenge the ordinance under the takings clause. And since the ordinance does not provide a means for owners to challenge their selection (opportunity to be heard), you can also raise a due process clause challenge.
(Choice A) The dormant commerce clause generally bars states and local governments from discriminating against out-of-state commerce or imposing undue burdens on interstate commerce. But since the ordinance concerns only buildings located in the city, it does not implicate the dormant commerce clause.
(Choice C) The owners' buildings were selected randomly from all commercial buildings in the city, so it is unlikely that the city violated the equal protection clause in its selection. Additionally, the distinction between commercial and residential buildings is likely justified under rational basis review.
(Choice D) The supremacy clause provides that federal law supersedes any conflicting state or local law. However, the only law at issue here is the city ordinance, so the supremacy clause is irrelevant.
(Choice F) Under the Tenth Amendment, all powers not assigned by the Constitution to the federal government are reserved to state and local governments and the people. As a result, the Tenth Amendment does not provide a basis to challenge the city ordinance.
Educational objective:
Under the takings clause, a physical taking occurs when the government (or a third party authorized by the government) permanently and physically occupies private property. And due process requires the government to provide notice and an opportunity to be heard when depriving a person of a life, liberty or property interest.
- Loretto v. Teleprompter Manhattan CATV Corp., 458 U.S. 419, 438 (1982) (holding that a permanent, physical invasion of private property by the government always constitutes a taking).
- Mullane v. Cent. Hanover Bank & Tr. Co., 339 U.S. 306, 313–14 (1950) (explaining procedural due process).
You represent a woman who broke into her ex-husband's house late one night when she knew he was away on business, intending to take a sculpture that he had been awarded in their divorce settlement. She searched the entire house but was unable to find the sculpture. She figured he had probably sold the sculpture, which made her furious because he knew how much she loved it. In a rage, she slashed a painting of his new girlfriend before leaving the house.
Larceny is defined as the trespassory taking and carrying away of the personal property of another with the intent to permanently deprive that person of the property. Burglary is defined as the breaking and entering of the dwelling of another at nighttime with the specific intent to commit a felony in the dwelling. Attempt requires proof of a substantial step toward the commission of a crime and the specific intent to commit the crime. Larceny and burglary are felonies in the jurisdiction.
Of which of the following crimes is the woman guilty?
- Attempted larceny only.
- Larceny only.
- Burglary only.
- Burglary and attempted larceny.
Explanation:
In this jurisdiction (and at common law), burglary requires proof of the following:
- an unlawful breaking and entering of another's dwelling at night and
- the specific intent to commit a felony (e.g., larceny) therein.
Once the defendant enters the dwelling with the requisite intent, the burglary is complete. This means that there is no need to prove that the defendant completed the underlying felony to obtain a burglary conviction.
A burglary defendant who did not complete the underlying felony is also guilty of the attempted commission of that felony. That is because the defendant (1) specifically intended to commit the felony and (2) performed a substantial step in furtherance of the felony—the unlawful breaking and entering.
Here, the woman is guilty of burglary because she broke into her ex-husband's home at night with the specific intent to commit larceny (Choices A and B). Larceny is the unlawful taking and carrying away of another's personal property (sculpture) with the specific intent to permanently deprive that person of the property. Although the woman did not complete the larceny, because she did not actually steal the sculpture, she is still guilty of attempted larceny (Choice C). Therefore, the woman is guilty of both burglary and attempted larceny.
Educational objective:
Common-law burglary is complete when the defendant unlawfully breaks and enters a dwelling at night with the intent to commit a felony therein. Commission of the underlying felony is unnecessary. However, a burglary defendant who fails to complete the underlying felony is also guilty of the attempted commission of that felony.
You represent a defendant on trial for wire fraud. The prosecution alleged that the defendant, a small business owner, ran an online investment scheme promising high returns but instead he pocketed the funds. The defendant takes the stand in his own defense and testifies: "I have always been an honest businessman. I would never lie to my customers or cheat anyone."
On cross-examination, the prosecutor seeks to impeach the defendant's credibility with (1) his felony conviction for burglary almost 10 years ago and (2) his misdemeanor conviction 12 years ago for defrauding investors through a false loan scheme.
You object to the admission of both convictions.
How is the court likely to rule?
- The court should admit both convictions, because criminal convictions are generally admissible to impeach a testifying defendant.
- The court should admit the more recent burglary conviction but exclude the fraud conviction that is more than 10 years old.
- The court should exclude both convictions, because prior convictions are generally inadmissible.
- The court should exclude the burglary conviction but may admit the fraud conviction if its probative value substantially outweighs its prejudicial effect.
Explanation:
Federal Rule of Evidence 609 provides that a witness's character for truthfulness can be impeached with a prior criminal conviction. However, the standards for admission vary depending on:
- the age of the conviction
- the type of conviction and
- the witness against whom the conviction is offered.
A conviction for fraud—a crime of dishonesty—is highly probative of truthfulness. When a fraud conviction is more than 10 years old, the conviction is admissible only if its probative value substantially outweighs its prejudicial effect. Even so, a fraud conviction is likely admissible because of its high probative value.
However, because burglary does not involve dishonesty or a false statement, a burglary conviction has minimal probative value as to a witness's credibility. And when the witness is a criminal defendant, a burglary conviction is likely inadmissible to impeach the witness because its probative value is unlikely to substantially exceed its prejudicial effect. Therefore, the court here should exclude the burglary conviction but may admit the fraud conviction if its probative value substantially outweighs its prejudicial effect (Choices A, B, and C).
Educational objective:
Evidence of a conviction for a crime of dishonesty that occurred more than 10 years prior is admissible to impeach a defendant witness's credibility if the probative value of the evidence substantially outweighs its prejudicial effect.
- Fed. R. Evid. 609 (attacking a witness's character for truthfulness with a criminal conviction)
Your client is an attorney with a family law practice. The client's niece is a recent law school graduate, and her nephew is an attorney. The client recently decided to retire, and, upon her request, you drafted a document conveying the historic building that houses her law practice "to [Niece], but if she fails to pass the bar exam within one year of her law school graduation, then to [Nephew]."
Which of the following accurately describes the property interests created?
Select two response options.
- The nephew and the client each have a possibility of reverter.
- The nephew has an executory interest, and the client has a right of entry.
- The nephew has an executory interest, and the client has no interest.
- The niece has a fee simple determinable.
- The niece has a fee simple subject to a condition subsequent.
- The niece has a fee simple subject to an executory interest.
Explanation:
A defeasible fee is a fee simple estate that may be terminated when a stated event or condition occurs. One type of defeasible fee is a fee simple subject to a condition subsequent (FSSCS), which is created with conditional language (e.g., "but if"). If the stated condition occurs, title will automatically pass to the future interest holder. If the future interest is held by a third party (as opposed to the grantor), then the estate is called a fee simple subject to an executory interest.
Here, the client conveyed the building to her niece, with conditional language ("but if") that the niece must pass the bar exam within a year of her law school graduation. If she fails to pass the exam, then title will pass to the nephew (third party)—not to the client (grantor). As a result, the niece has a fee simple subject to an executory interest and the nephew holds the executory interest. And because the client reserved no right in the property for herself (e.g., a right of entry), she has no interest.
(Choices A and D) A fee simple determinable is a defeasible fee that is created by specific durational language (e.g., "so long as," "during," "until"—none seen here). When the estate terminates, it automatically reverts back to the grantor.
(Choices B and E) A right of entry is a future interest that is held by the grantor (client) if the grantor specifically retained this right (not seen here). It follows an FSSCS and gives the grantor the right to terminate the FSSCS when the stated condition occurs.
Educational objective:
A fee simple subject to an executory interest is a present estate limited by durational or conditional language. If the stated event or condition occurs, title automatically passes to a third party who holds a future, executory interest.
- Restatement (Third) of Property: Wills & Other Donative Transfers § 24.3, cmt d. (Am. L. Inst. 2011) (explaining fee simple defeasible).
- Restatement (Third) of Property: Wills & Other Donative Transfers § 25.2, cmt. b. (Am. L. Inst. 2011) (discussing reversion or remainder).
- MBE Real Property Outline I.A.2.c. Ownership: Present Estates – Defeasible Fees – Fee simple subject to an executory interest
A woman purchased a new car from a car dealer. The car's engine contained a defectively manufactured computer chip, causing the woman to lose control of the car and suffer injuries. The chip was manufactured by a component company and then purchased by an engine builder. The engine builder then incorporated the chip into the engine and sold the engine to a car manufacturer. The car manufacturer then incorporated the engine into the car and sold the car to the car dealer.
The woman has scheduled a meeting with you to discuss options for bringing a strict products liability claim against the component company, the engine builder, the car manufacturer, and the car dealer.
Which of the prospective defendants may be held strictly liable to the woman?
- Only the car dealer, because the woman was not in privity with the other prospective defendants.
- Only the component company, because the company is responsible for manufacturing the defective chip.
- Any of the prospective defendants that negligently failed to inspect the defective chip.
- Any of the prospective defendants, regardless of whether that prospective defendant was negligent.
Explanation:
Any commercial seller in the distribution chain—e.g., manufacturer, distributor, retailer—is subject to strict products liability if (1) the product was defective when it left the commercial seller's control and (2) that defect caused the plaintiff harm. Strict liability is imposed even if the commercial seller did not create or know about that defect.
Here, a manufacturing defect in the computer chip caused the woman to lose control of her car and suffer injuries. The defect existed at the time the component company manufactured the chip, and the defect continued to exist when it left the engine builder's, the car manufacturer's, and the car dealer's control (Choice B). Therefore, any of these prospective defendants may be held strictly liable to the woman for her injuries—regardless of whether they were negligent.
(Choice A) Although the woman was in privity (i.e., had a contractual relationship) with the car dealer only, privity is not required in a strict liability action. Every commercial supplier in the distribution chain—even those not in privity with the plaintiff—is subject to strict liability if the defect existed when the product left the supplier's control.
(Choice C) Since strict liability is imposed without proof of fault, any party in the distribution chain is strictly liable regardless of whether it could have discovered the defect by a reasonable inspection of the computer chip.
Educational objective:
Strict products liability is imposed on any commercial seller in the chain of distribution if (1) the product contained a defect when it left the commercial seller's control and (2) that defect caused the plaintiff harm.
- Restatement (Third) of Torts: Prods. Liab. §§ 1, 2 (Am. L. Inst. 1998) (discussing strict products liability of commercial sellers).
Integrated Question Set: Task Materials
As an associate in a transactional law firm, you represent a client, the owner of a technology company that creates new cellular phone technology. Recently, the client came to you about a partnership agreement he made with two creators of a cellular phone application.
The following is an excerpt from the partnership agreement:
THIS PARTNERSHIP AGREEMENT is made between CLIENT, CREATOR 1, and CREATOR 2. The partners listed above hereby agree that they shall be considered partners in business for developing new applications for CLIENT'S cellular phone technology corporation.
Termination. No partner may withdraw from the partnership without a unanimous vote by the other partners. Should the partnership be terminated, the partnership's assets and cash must be used to pay all creditors, and the remaining amounts must be distributed to the partners in accordance with their proportionate share.
End of excerpt
The client tells you that on May 30, Creator 1 informed the client and Creator 2 in writing that he was withdrawing from the partnership because of creative differences. Citing the above agreement, the client stated that Creator 1 could not withdraw without a unanimous vote by the partners. Nevertheless, Creator 1 filed his written withdrawal notice with the secretary of state on June 1.
The client asks whether Creator 1's withdrawal was effective. You find Franklin Revised Partnership Act § 25.15.131, as follows:
Section 25.15.13
(1) A person is dissociated as a partner of a general partnership upon the occurrence of one or more of the following events:
(a) The partner dies during the partner's tenure in the partnership;
(b) The partner withdraws in accordance with the provisions of the partnership agreement;
(c) The partner is removed by a majority of the remaining partners; or
(d) The partner withdraws by providing written notice to the remaining partners. In addition, the partner must file a written notice with the Franklin secretary of state's office within ten (10) days of notice to the remaining partners for dissociation to be effective.
Now answer Component 1.
Based on your advice, the client does not contest Creator 1's withdrawal from the partnership. Subsequently, the client tells you that now that Creator 1 has dissociated from the partnership with the client and Creator 2, Creator 1 has announced that he intends to form a partnership with a rival company.
Answer
Explanation:
Under the Franklin Revised Partnership Act, a person is dissociated as a partner of a general partnership upon the occurrence of one or more of the following events:
-
the partner dies
-
the partner withdraws in compliance with the provisions of the partnership agreement
-
the partner is removed by a majority of the remaining partners or
-
the partner withdraws by providing written notice to the remaining partners and files the withdrawal notice with the secretary of state within 10 days of notice to the remaining partners.
Here, on May 30, Creator 1 provided written notice of his withdrawal from the partnership to the client and Creator 2 (i.e., the remaining partners). On June 1, Creator 1 filed this notice with the secretary of state. And though the partnership agreement provides another method (unanimous vote) for Creator 1 to withdraw, his written notice and filing with the secretary of state support his position that his withdrawal was effective under the statute.
Integrated Question Set: Task Materials
As an associate in a transactional law firm, you represent a client, the owner of a technology company that creates new cellular phone technology. Recently, the client came to you about a partnership agreement he made with two creators of a cellular phone application.
The following is an excerpt from the partnership agreement:
THIS PARTNERSHIP AGREEMENT is made between CLIENT, CREATOR 1, and CREATOR 2. The partners listed above hereby agree that they shall be considered partners in business for developing new applications for CLIENT'S cellular phone technology corporation.
Termination. No partner may withdraw from the partnership without a unanimous vote by the other partners. Should the partnership be terminated, the partnership's assets and cash must be used to pay all creditors, and the remaining amounts must be distributed to the partners in accordance with their proportionate share.
End of excerpt
The client tells you that on May 30, Creator 1 informed the client and Creator 2 in writing that he was withdrawing from the partnership because of creative differences. Citing the above agreement, the client stated that Creator 1 could not withdraw without a unanimous vote by the partners. Nevertheless, Creator 1 filed his written withdrawal notice with the secretary of state on June 1.
The client asks whether Creator 1's withdrawal was effective. You find Franklin Revised Partnership Act § 25.15.131, as follows:
Section 25.15.13
(1) A person is dissociated as a partner of a general partnership upon the occurrence of one or more of the following events:
(a) The partner dies during the partner's tenure in the partnership;
(b) The partner withdraws in accordance with the provisions of the partnership agreement;
(c) The partner is removed by a majority of the remaining partners; or
(d) The partner withdraws by providing written notice to the remaining partners. In addition, the partner must file a written notice with the Franklin secretary of state's office within ten (10) days of notice to the remaining partners for dissociation to be effective.
Now answer Component 2.
The client and Creator 2 immediately file a statement of dissociation with the state indicating Creator 1's dissociation. Five months later, the client audits the partnership's contracts, revealing a contract with a parts manufacturer that neither the client nor Creator 2 recognizes. It appears that Creator 1 entered into this transaction after his dissociation from the partnership.
Another associate helps you gather more information about the contract by calling the executive officer of the parts manufacturer. The following is an excerpt from the transcript of the call:
Answer
Explanation:
Under the Franklin Revised Partnership Act, a person is dissociated as a partner of a general partnership upon the occurrence of one or more of the following events:
-
the partner dies
-
the partner withdraws in compliance with the provisions of the partnership agreement
-
the partner is removed by a majority of the remaining partners or
-
the partner withdraws by providing written notice to the remaining partners and files the withdrawal notice with the secretary of state within 10 days of notice to the remaining partners.
Here, on May 30, Creator 1 provided written notice of his withdrawal from the partnership to the client and Creator 2 (i.e., the remaining partners). On June 1, Creator 1 filed this notice with the secretary of state. And though the partnership agreement provides another method (unanimous vote) for Creator 1 to withdraw, his written notice and filing with the secretary of state support his position that his withdrawal was effective under the statute.
Integrated Question Set: Task Materials
As an associate in a transactional law firm, you represent a client, the owner of a technology company that creates new cellular phone technology. Recently, the client came to you about a partnership agreement he made with two creators of a cellular phone application.
The following is an excerpt from the partnership agreement:
THIS PARTNERSHIP AGREEMENT is made between CLIENT, CREATOR 1, and CREATOR 2. The partners listed above hereby agree that they shall be considered partners in business for developing new applications for CLIENT'S cellular phone technology corporation.
Termination. No partner may withdraw from the partnership without a unanimous vote by the other partners. Should the partnership be terminated, the partnership's assets and cash must be used to pay all creditors, and the remaining amounts must be distributed to the partners in accordance with their proportionate share.
End of excerpt
The client tells you that on May 30, Creator 1 informed the client and Creator 2 in writing that he was withdrawing from the partnership because of creative differences. Citing the above agreement, the client stated that Creator 1 could not withdraw without a unanimous vote by the partners. Nevertheless, Creator 1 filed his written withdrawal notice with the secretary of state on June 1.
The client asks whether Creator 1's withdrawal was effective. You find Franklin Revised Partnership Act § 25.15.131, as follows:
Section 25.15.13
(1) A person is dissociated as a partner of a general partnership upon the occurrence of one or more of the following events:
(a) The partner dies during the partner's tenure in the partnership;
(b) The partner withdraws in accordance with the provisions of the partnership agreement;
(c) The partner is removed by a majority of the remaining partners; or
(d) The partner withdraws by providing written notice to the remaining partners. In addition, the partner must file a written notice with the Franklin secretary of state's office within ten (10) days of notice to the remaining partners for dissociation to be effective.
Now answer Component 3.
The client also asks whether Creator 1 will likely be liable if the contract with the parts manufacturer is binding on the partnership.
Answer
If a partner dissociates from a partnership but the partnership is not dissolved, the dissociated partner can enter into a transaction with a third party that binds not only the dissociated partner as a partner but also the partnership. This is the case if—at the time of the transaction—the third party:
- reasonably believes that the dissociated partner is a partner
- does not have notice of the partner's dissociation and
- is not deemed to have knowledge of the dissociated partner's lack of authority.
Partnership liability for a disassociated partner's transactions with a third party is generally limited to transactions entered into within two years of the partner's dissociation. But if the partnership files a statement of dissociation with the state, the partnership may reduce the window of liability to 90 days post-filing.
Here, Creator 1 entered a contract with a manufacturer after dissociating from the partnership. The manufacturer's executive officer believed that Creator 1 was a partner at that time and did not have notice of his dissociation or knowledge of his lack of authority. But since filing a statement of disassociation reduces a partnership's window of liability for a dissociated partner's transactions to 90 days post-filing, determining when the contract was formed is important.
Educational objective:
Partnership liability for a dissociated partner's transactions with a third party is generally limited to those entered within two years of the dissociation. But if the partnership files a statement of dissociation with the state, the partnership may reduce the window of liability to 90 days.
Integrated Question Set: Task Materials
As an associate in a transactional law firm, you represent a client, the owner of a technology company that creates new cellular phone technology. Recently, the client came to you about a partnership agreement he made with two creators of a cellular phone application.
The following is an excerpt from the partnership agreement:
THIS PARTNERSHIP AGREEMENT is made between CLIENT, CREATOR 1, and CREATOR 2. The partners listed above hereby agree that they shall be considered partners in business for developing new applications for CLIENT'S cellular phone technology corporation.
Termination. No partner may withdraw from the partnership without a unanimous vote by the other partners. Should the partnership be terminated, the partnership's assets and cash must be used to pay all creditors, and the remaining amounts must be distributed to the partners in accordance with their proportionate share.
End of excerpt
The client tells you that on May 30, Creator 1 informed the client and Creator 2 in writing that he was withdrawing from the partnership because of creative differences. Citing the above agreement, the client stated that Creator 1 could not withdraw without a unanimous vote by the partners. Nevertheless, Creator 1 filed his written withdrawal notice with the secretary of state on June 1.
The client asks whether Creator 1's withdrawal was effective. You find Franklin Revised Partnership Act § 25.15.131, as follows:
Section 25.15.13
(1) A person is dissociated as a partner of a general partnership upon the occurrence of one or more of the following events:
(a) The partner dies during the partner's tenure in the partnership;
(b) The partner withdraws in accordance with the provisions of the partnership agreement;
(c) The partner is removed by a majority of the remaining partners; or
(d) The partner withdraws by providing written notice to the remaining partners. In addition, the partner must file a written notice with the Franklin secretary of state's office within ten (10) days of notice to the remaining partners for dissociation to be effective.
Now answer Component 4.
The client contacts you about the purchase of a storage facility for some of the component parts of his company's cellular devices. He explains that there are few facilities in Franklin large enough for that purpose. However, he recently reached an oral agreement with the owner of one such facility to purchase it for $175,000. After the client paid the owner $50,000, the owner gave him the keys. The client then changed the locks on the doors of the facility.
Question
- No, because fraud in factum did not negate the woman's consent.
- No, because Creator 1 had no power to bind the partnership when he entered into the contract.
- No, because Creator 1 was no longer liable for partnership obligations after his dissociation.
- Yes, because the executive believed that Creator 1, as a partner, had the authority to enter into the contract.
Explanation:
| Liability of dissociated partner | |
|---|---|
| Pre-dissociation liability |
Liable for partnership obligations
incurred before dissociation unless:
|
| Post-dissociation liability |
Liable for partnership obligations
incurred after dissociation only if, at time of
transaction, third party to transaction:
|
A dissociated partner is generally liable for partnership obligations incurred before the partner dissociates. However, a dissociated partner may also be liable for partnership obligations incurred after dissociation if the dissociated partner enters into a transaction with a third party and, at the time of the transaction, the third party:
- reasonably believes that the dissociated partner is a partner
- does not have notice of the partner's dissociation and
- is not deemed to have knowledge of the dissociated partner's lack of authority.
Here, Creator 1 entered into the contract after dissociation. The third party's executive officer reasonably believed that Creator 1 was a partner at the time of the transaction. Additionally, the executive officer did not have notice of Creator 1's dissociation (Choice B). And because the executive officer believed that Creator 1, as a partner, had the authority to enter into the contract, Creator 1 will likely be liable under the contract if it is binding on the partnership.
(Choice A) Although Creator 1, as a dissociated partner, did not have actual authority to enter into the contract, he had apparent authority to do so based on the executive officer's belief that Creator 1 was still a partner with authority to bind the partnership.
(Choice C) A partner's duty of care terminates upon dissociation unless the partnership dissolves and the dissociated partner is engaged in winding up the partnership's business (not seen here).
Educational objective:
A dissociated partner may be liable for post-dissociation partnership obligations if, at the time of the transaction, the third party reasonably believes that the dissociated partner is still a partner, does not have notice of the dissociation, and is not deemed to know of his lack of authority.
Integrated Question Set: Task Materials
As an associate in a transactional law firm, you represent a client, the owner of a technology company that creates new cellular phone technology. Recently, the client came to you about a partnership agreement he made with two creators of a cellular phone application.
The following is an excerpt from the partnership agreement:
THIS PARTNERSHIP AGREEMENT is made between CLIENT, CREATOR 1, and CREATOR 2. The partners listed above hereby agree that they shall be considered partners in business for developing new applications for CLIENT'S cellular phone technology corporation.
Termination. No partner may withdraw from the partnership without a unanimous vote by the other partners. Should the partnership be terminated, the partnership's assets and cash must be used to pay all creditors, and the remaining amounts must be distributed to the partners in accordance with their proportionate share.
End of excerpt
The client tells you that on May 30, Creator 1 informed the client and Creator 2 in writing that he was withdrawing from the partnership because of creative differences. Citing the above agreement, the client stated that Creator 1 could not withdraw without a unanimous vote by the partners. Nevertheless, Creator 1 filed his written withdrawal notice with the secretary of state on June 1.
The client asks whether Creator 1's withdrawal was effective. You find Franklin Revised Partnership Act § 25.15.131, as follows:
Section 25.15.13
(1) A person is dissociated as a partner of a general partnership upon the occurrence of one or more of the following events:
(a) The partner dies during the partner's tenure in the partnership;
(b) The partner withdraws in accordance with the provisions of the partnership agreement;
(c) The partner is removed by a majority of the remaining partners; or
(d) The partner withdraws by providing written notice to the remaining partners. In addition, the partner must file a written notice with the Franklin secretary of state's office within ten (10) days of notice to the remaining partners for dissociation to be effective.
Now answer Component 5.
The client tells you that acquiring a storage facility is time-sensitive. His production team is slated to begin production on a new product so that it will be available for retail before the holiday season. The client has since found another storage facility large enough to store the components. However, the asking price is $225,000. Additionally, that facility is 10 miles from the production site, while the first facility is 2 miles from the site. For these reasons, the client wants the owner of the first facility to honor their oral agreement.
Question
Component 5: Which of the following facts demonstrate that the client and the owner made an enforceable contract for the sale of the facility?
Select two response options.
- The client and the owner orally agreed on the sale of the facility.
- The client changed the locks on the doors of the facility.
- The client paid the owner $50,000.
- The owner admitted that a contract existed between the parties.
- The owner fully performed by giving the client the keys.
- The owner gave possession of the facility to the client.
Explanation:
The statute of frauds applies to contracts for the sale of land (e.g., the storage facility). It requires that the contract (1) be in writing, (2) be signed by the party against whom enforcement is sought, and (3) contain all essential terms. Here, the oral agreement between the client and the owner for the sale of the facility violated this statute (Choice A).
However, a contract for the sale of land that violates the statute of frauds may still be enforceable if the part-performance exception applies. This requires proof that the buyer has done at least two of the following:
- taken possession of the property
- made substantial improvements to the property
- paid some or all of the purchase price
Here, the client took possession of the facility by receiving the keys from the owner. Additionally, the client paid the owner $50,000 of the $175,000 purchase price. Together, these facts demonstrate that the part-performance exception applies and that, as a result, the client and the owner made an enforceable contract for the sale of the facility.
(Choice B) Although making substantial improvements supports a finding of part performance, changing the locks on the facility is not a substantial improvement.
(Choice D) A party may be able to enforce an oral contract for the sale of land when the other party admits that a contract exists. But here, the owner did not admit to the existence of a contract.
(Choice E) Full performance occurs when a party to an oral contract who promised to convey real property performs (i.e., transfers the deed). But giving the client keys to the facility is merely a factor for partial performance—not full performance.
Educational objective:
A contract for the sale of land that violates the statute of frauds may still be enforceable based on the part-performance exception if the buyer has done at least two of the following: (1) taken possession of the property, (2) substantially improved it, and (3) paid any of the purchase price.
Integrated Question Set: Task Materials
As an associate in a transactional law firm, you represent a client, the owner of a technology company that creates new cellular phone technology. Recently, the client came to you about a partnership agreement he made with two creators of a cellular phone application.
The following is an excerpt from the partnership agreement:
THIS PARTNERSHIP AGREEMENT is made between CLIENT, CREATOR 1, and CREATOR 2. The partners listed above hereby agree that they shall be considered partners in business for developing new applications for CLIENT'S cellular phone technology corporation.
Termination. No partner may withdraw from the partnership without a unanimous vote by the other partners. Should the partnership be terminated, the partnership's assets and cash must be used to pay all creditors, and the remaining amounts must be distributed to the partners in accordance with their proportionate share.
End of excerpt
The client tells you that on May 30, Creator 1 informed the client and Creator 2 in writing that he was withdrawing from the partnership because of creative differences. Citing the above agreement, the client stated that Creator 1 could not withdraw without a unanimous vote by the partners. Nevertheless, Creator 1 filed his written withdrawal notice with the secretary of state on June 1.
The client asks whether Creator 1's withdrawal was effective. You find Franklin Revised Partnership Act § 25.15.131, as follows:
Section 25.15.13
(1) A person is dissociated as a partner of a general partnership upon the occurrence of one or more of the following events:
(a) The partner dies during the partner's tenure in the partnership;
(b) The partner withdraws in accordance with the provisions of the partnership agreement;
(c) The partner is removed by a majority of the remaining partners; or
(d) The partner withdraws by providing written notice to the remaining partners. In addition, the partner must file a written notice with the Franklin secretary of state's office within ten (10) days of notice to the remaining partners for dissociation to be effective.
Question
Component 6: Identify the remedy the client should seek to achieve his objectives.
Answer
Submit
Explanation:
An adverse possessor can acquire title to land owned by another if his/her possession of the land is:
- Open and notorious – apparent or visible to a reasonable owner
- Continuous – uninterrupted for the statutory period
- Exclusive – not shared with the owner
- Actual – physical presence on the land and
- Nonpermissive – hostile and adverse to the owner.
If the surface and mineral estates are owned by the same party, then the adverse possessor will acquire title to both estates—even if only one estate is actually possessed. But if the mineral estate has been severed from the surface estate (ie, the surface and mineral estates are owned by different parties), then the adverse possessor will only acquire title to the estate that is actually possessed. The mineral estate is actually possessed when the adverse possessor mines or drills wells on the land.
Here, the neighbor purchased the mineral estate from the man, thereby severing the mineral estate from the surface estate. And since the woman merely lived on the property for the 10-year statutory period—she did not attempt to mine or drill a well on the mineral estate—she actually possessed only the surface estate during that time (Choice D). This means that the woman did not adversely possess the mineral estate, and the court is not likely to award her title to that estate.
(Choice B) Adverse possession of a mineral estate requires the commencement of drilling or mining operations. Merely signing a lease of the mineral rights is not enough.
(Choice C) A deed need not be recorded to be valid, so the neighbor's failure to record has no impact on whether the woman adversely possessed the mineral estate.
Educational objective:
If a mineral estate has previously been severed from the surface estate (ie, surface and minerals owned by different persons), then an adverse possessor can only acquire title to the mineral estate by actually possessing the minerals (eg, by mining or drilling wells).
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Maryland Bar Exam Requirements
To sit for the Maryland Bar Exam, you must meet specific educational and certification requirements, which vary depending on whether you’re a law school student, foreign-educated lawyer, or seeking admission on motion through reciprocity.
Law School Students
To sit for the Maryland Bar Exam, you must graduate with a Juris Doctorate (JD) or equivalent from a law school approved by the American Bar Association (ABA). If you attended a non-ABA law school, you must apply for an eligibility waiver to confirm that your education aligns with ABA standards.
Foreign Law School Students
Foreign applicants can take the Maryland Bar Exam if they have completed a legal degree outside the United States and earned a Master of Laws (LLM) from an ABA-approved law school. Applicants must obtain an Eligibility Waiver for Graduates of Non-ABA Law Schools before filing their Notice of Intent to Take the UBE.
Admission on Motion (Reciprocity)
To be admitted to the Maryland Bar without examination, you must:
- Currently be licensed and in good standing in another U.S. jurisdiction
- Have at least 3 years of full-time legal work out of the last 5, or 10+ years total
- Complete a Character Questionnaire and include the required documents
- Achieve a minimum score of 85 on the Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE®)
- Pass the Maryland Law Component
Scheduling
To schedule your Maryland Bar Exam, follow these steps:
- Create an eBar Account: Enter personal details, Social Security number, and National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE®) number.
- Submit Transcript: Have your college send an official transcript to the Maryland State Board of Law Examiners, then await confirmation.
- Complete the Character Questionnaire: Submit it online, print it, sign it, and include a credit report and driving history. Then, pay the $350 fee.
- File the Notice of Intent: Select the exam session, indicate accommodations, and submit online and by mail, including the $400 fee, by the appropriate deadline.
- Additional Requirements: Obtain education waivers before filing your Notice of Intent (if needed), or submit a letter for good cause if filing late.
| Address |
State Board of Law Examiners Administrative Office, Judiciary APOD, 580 Taylor Ave., 1st Floor, Annapolis, MD 21401 |
|---|
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Maryland NextGen UBE Exam Deadlines, Fees, and Cost-Saving Options3
Preparing your application and submitting it on time is especially important in Maryland, where there are no late-filing periods. See below for important deadlines, dates, and fees.
Maryland Bar Exam Deadlines
An official pre-legal transcript and Character Questionnaire ($350) must be submitted with or before the primary application. Both can be filed before the application period opens.
Exam Dates and Deadlines
| Filing Periods | July 2026 Exam | February 2027 Exam |
|---|---|---|
| First Filing Deadline | May 1, 2026 | Dec. 1, 2026 |
Fees
| Application Fees | |
|---|---|
| Notice of intent | $400 |
| First-time takers | $750 |
| Attorneys | $750 |
| Repeaters | $400 |
| Admission without Examination (Out-of-State Attorneys) | |
| Petition for application without submission | $700 |
| Character questionnaire | $350 |
| Transfer UBE score | $400 |
| Miscellaneous Fees | |
| NCBE character and fitness | Schedule |
| Laptop Registration | $130 |
| ExamSoft software | $50 |
| Technology Fee | $149 |
Payment Policies
Application and attorney-related fees are paid directly to the Maryland State Board of Law Examiners as part of the bar application process. In addition, applicants must pay a separate $149 NextGen technology fee directly to the NCBE (or its testing vendor) to complete registration for the exam.
Your Character Questionnaire fee and Notice of Intent fees must be paid with a check or money order made payable to “State Board of Law Examiners” and included with your filing.
Cost-Saving Options
Scholarships and grants are available to help Maryland law students and graduates with legal education and bar exam costs.
- The Maryland Bar Foundation provides annual grants and awards to Maryland law students.
- The Sarita & Claire Foundation (SCWLF) awards a yearly scholarship to a graduating law student preparing to take the Maryland Bar Exam.
- Browse AccessLex Institute Law School Scholarship Databank.
- Check out the ABA website, which offers 100+ opportunities and programs for young lawyers and law students.
Maryland NextGen Bar Exam Scoring and Grading
Effective July 2026, the NextGen UBE scores will be reported on a scaled score from 500 to 750. Maryland will set its own passing score within this range. Here are component weightages:
- Standalone multiple-choice questions: 49%
- Integrated question sets: 21%
- Performance tasks: 30%
Maryland Bar Exam Results and Pass Rates 4
As is common with bar exams across the country, the Maryland Bar Exam’s repeater pass rate is markedly lower than the first-timer pass rate. This phenomenon is likely because many examinees who failed the first time haven’t significantly changed their study habits.
| Exam | Overall Pass Rate | First-Timer Pass Rate | Repeater Pass Rate | Results Release Date |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| February 2026 | TBA | TBA | TBA | TBA |
| July 2025 | 63% | 76% | 26% | Oct. 17 |
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Additional Maryland Bar Requirements
To obtain and keep licensure, you must fulfill additional requirements beyond passing the Maryland Bar Exam, namely passing the MPRE and the Maryland Law Component.
MPRE® Requirements
The MPRE is a 2-hour, 60-question multiple-choice exam that assesses your knowledge of the ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct. You must score 85 or higher within 3 years of filing your Notice of Intent. You can register through the NCBE.
Learn More
Character and Fitness Requirements
In Maryland, the character and fitness review is conducted through the NCBE after you pass the bar exam, but it must be approved before you are admitted to the state bar. This review evaluates your integrity, judgment, and responsibility based on the detailed personal, academic, and professional history you disclose, requiring full transparency for approval.
Post-Admission Continuing Legal Education (CLE)
Maryland does not require CLE but is considering implementing it for attorneys, based on recommendations from a workgroup commissioned by the Supreme Court of Maryland.5
Maryland Law Component
The Maryland Law Component (MLC) is required for individuals seeking admission to the Maryland Bar through the UBE, UBE score transfer, or without examination as an out-of-state attorney. The MLC must be completed before admission and within 2 years of passing the UBE or filing a Notice or Petition.6
Maryland State Board of Law Examiners Contact Details
The Maryland State Board of Law Examiners answers calls Monday through Friday from 8:30 a.m. to 4:30 p.m. ET, except for state and federal holidays.
| Maryland State Board of Law Examiners Contact Information | |
|---|---|
| Medium | Info |
| Phone Number | 410-260-3640 |
| [email protected] | |
| Mailing Address |
Judiciary A-Pod 580 Taylor Ave. Annapolis, MD 21401 |
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
How often is the Maryland Bar Exam offered?
Can anyone take the Maryland Bar Exam?
How long is the Maryland Bar Exam?
Effective July 2026, the NextGen UBE Uniform Bar Examination will be 9 hours long, spanning 6 hours on day 1 and 3 hours on day 2.
How many times can you take the Maryland Bar Exam?
What is the minimum passing UBE score for Maryland?
What is the admission without examination process like?
You can be admitted to the Maryland Bar without examination if you’ve been actively engaged in law practice and meet these requirements.
How do I become a licensed attorney in Maryland?
Can you practice law without a law degree in Maryland?
How do you request special accommodations for the Maryland Bar Exam?
References
-
National Conference of Bar Examiners. (2025). Official Examinees’ Guide to the NextGen UBE.
https://www.ncbex.org/sites/default/files/2025-07/NCBE-NextGen-UBE-Examinees-Guide%20J26-F27.pdf
- National Conference of Bar Examiners. (n.d.). NextGen Bar Exam.
- National Conference of Bar Examiners. (n.d.). Maryland.
-
National Conference of Bar Examiners. (n.d.). Bar Exam Results by Jurisdiction.
https://www.ncbex.org/statistics-research/bar-exam-results-jurisdiction
- Maryland Courts. (n.d.) A Report on Mandatory CLE in Maryland.
- Maryland Courts. (n.d.). Maryland Law Component.
-
National Conference of Bar Examiners. (n.d.). NextGen UBE Minimum Passing Scores.
https://www.ncbex.org/exams/nextgen-ube/minimum-passing-scores
