The Georgia Bar Exam | The Ultimate Guide 2024

Get ready for the 2024 Georgia Bar Exam. Learn exam dates, costs, scores, pass rates, results, requirements, subjects, and practice with sample questions
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The Georgia Bar Exam is developed and administered by the Georgia Board of Bar Examiners and the National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE®). The only component of the exam that is not part of the Uniform Bar Examination (UBE®) is the essay component, which tests an examinee's knowledge and understanding of the rules of law of Georgia.

This article provides detailed information about the Georgia Bar Exam, including essay topics, results, pass rates, requirements, important dates and deadlines, subjects, costs and fees, format, and scoring.

Georgia Bar Exam Structure

The GA Bar Exam is administered over two days. Each day is divided into two three-hour sessions.

Georgia Bar Exam Structure
Morning
(3-hour session)
Afternoon
(3-hour session)
Day One MPT items 1 and 2 4 essay questions
Day Two 100 MBE multiple-choice questions 100 MBE multiple-choice questions

You'll have three hours on the morning of the first day to complete both Multistate Performance Test (MPT®) items, and there are no breaks between items. After a lunch break of about an hour, you'll have another three hours to answer four essay questions. Day two of the Georgia Bar Exam follows the same general schedule but is entirely dedicated to the Multistate Bar Examination (MBE®).

Half of your total bar exam score rests on your scaled MBE score. The MBE consists of 200 multiple-choice questions that examinees must answer within six hours. It tests one's ability to apply fundamental legal principles and reasoning to various fact patterns.

Note that 25 of the 200 MBE questions are pilot questions for future exams and are not scored. Nevertheless, be sure to answer each question as though it will be scored, as there is no way of knowing which questions are pilot questions.

The Georgia-specific essay component of the exam consists of four essay questions that examinees have three hours to answer. The fact patterns of these questions may be pulled from a pool of eight Georgia-specific subjects (see below) and the seven MBE subjects. You will not know which subjects are being tested until you sit for the exam.

The MPT consists of two tasks that simulate real-world lawyering assignments. Examinees are provided a "library" of laws and a "file" of facts and are given 90 minutes to complete an assignment from a "supervising attorney." Understand that these laws and facts are set in the fictitious jurisdiction of "Franklin." You cannot study them beforehand.

Georgia Bar Exam Dates, Requirements and Scheduling

The Georgia Bar Exam is administered twice a year. Once in February and again in July. Preparing your application and submitting it before the deadline is of ultimate importance. Applications submitted during the final filing period require a $500 late fee.

The table below breaks down the schedule for the upcoming GA Bar Exam administrations:

Bar Exam Dates Feb. 27–28, 2024 July 30-31, 2024
Regular Filing Period September 1, 2023 - January 1, 2024 March 1, 2024 - June 1, 2024
Final Filing Period Jan. 2, 2024 to Jan. 15, 2024 June 1, 2024 - June 15, 2024
Transcript Deadline Jan. 31, 2024 June 30, 2024
Accommodations Deadline December 1, 2023 May 1, 2024

To sit for the Georgia Bar Exam, you must have graduated with a Juris Doctorate (JD) or LL.B from a law school approved by the American Bar Association (ABA) or the Georgia Board of Bar Examiners and be of sound character and fitness as defined by the Supreme Court of Georgia

Candidates seeking admission to practice law in Georgia must complete a two-step process, submitting two applications with separate filing deadlines and registration fees.;

  • Step 1: Create a personal account on the Supreme Court of Georgia Office of Bar Admissions' website and then submit an Application for Certification of Fitness.
  • Step 2: Once the Fitness Board has issued you a Certification of Fitness to practice law, file a Bar Exam Application to gain eligibility to sit for a bar exam.

Candidates should read all the rules and policies governing admission to the practice of law in Georgia to ensure proper and timely applications.

Georgia Bar Exam Costs and Fees

Registration fees for the Georgia Bar Exam vary by application type and filing deadline.

The first step to admission into the Georgia Bar is to file the Fitness Application and receive a valid Certification of Fitness to Practice Law. The Character and Fitness fee schedule is as follows:

Type of Application Fee
Fitness Application for the two-day exam if filed prior to the award of the first professional degree in law $450
Fitness Application for the two-day exam if filed between the award of the first professional
degree in law and within one year thereof
$750
Fitness Application for applicants who wish to sit for the one-day Attorneys' Examination $1,200
Petition for Admission of Foreign-Educated Applicant (which includes a Fitness Application) $1,000
Petition to determine eligibility for Admission on Motion without Exam (which includes a Fitness Application) $2,500
Fitness Application for Foreign Law Consultant $1,500

Once you receive notification that you've been issued a Certification of Fitness to practice law in Georgia, you may apply to sit for the GA Bar Exam. The Georgia Bar Exam application fee schedule is as follows:

Type of Bar Exam Application Regular Application Period Filing Fee Filing Fee Charged by NCBE
Two-day bar exam application filed by current law student $400 $98
Two-day bar exam application filed by law school graduate $550 $98
One-Day Attorneys' Exam Application $550 $30

Payment policies

Fitness Application fees must be paid by credit card (Visa/Mastercard) in addition to a $10 convenience fee. You may also deliver a money order or cashier's check payable to the Board of Bar Examiners to the Office of Bar Admissions. 

After your Fitness Application has been approved, you can apply for the Georgia Bar Exam. The Office of Bar Admissions will review your request, and you will receive instructions within two days detailing how to pay the filing fee. 

Cost-saving options

The journey to the bar can get expensive. The good news is that scholarships are available to law students and graduates to help with the costs associated with bar exam preparation and application.

  • The University of Georgia School of Law offers several prestigious awards valued at or above full tuition to admitted students. 
  • The Gate City Bar Association offers annual scholarships for minority students enrolled in a law school in Georgia or Georgia residents enrolled in a law school outside the state.
  • The Georgia Association For Women Lawyers (GAWL) offers an annual scholarship to deserving women law students in Georgia. Learn more at GAWL Foundation Scholarships
  • The Law School Admission Council (LSAC) has compiled a list of available scholarships for various groups of law students. Check out the complete list here: Law School Scholarships and Grants | LSAC.

As a Georgia Bar Exam applicant, it would behoove you to research these and other resources and apply to as many scholarships as possible to offset your bar exam registration and/or bar prep costs.

Georgia Bar Exam Subjects and Topics

The GA Bar Exam tests an examinee's knowledge and understanding of foundational legal principles and the unique rules of law of the state of Georgia. Furthermore, Georgia has adopted the MBE component of the UBE, which covers federal law across seven subjects.

Georgia-specific essays

In addition to the above MBE topics, the GA Bar Exam essay questions will test applicants on these subjects:

Brush up on the formation of business organizations and their structures (i.e., limited liability companies), and corporate law.

Deals with rules of law that regulate matters relating to the family, such as divorce, alimony, child custody, etc.

You should be familiar with federal civil, criminal, and appellate procedures. Study rules of evidence, the jurisdiction of federal courts, venue, the relation of state and federal courts, res judicata, and the interpretation and application of rules of law by federal courts.

Dive into Civil Procedure as it relates to Georgia. Study trial courts, venue, validity of judgments, and constitutional and statutory provisions allocating jurisdictions.

Covers issues regarding protected activity for employees. Understand what constitutes an illegal firing and how the General Counsel seeks back pay.

Study standards of conduct and rules of law that regulate the relationship between client and lawyer, confidentiality, conflicts of interest, and rules of arbitration professional standards of conduct.

Brush up on decedents’ estates, family protection, living wills, and trusts.

The Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) was designed to harmonize commercial transactions and sales laws across the US.

The GA Bar Exam features two 90-minute performance test questions presenting a legal scenario that challenges you to determine how a lawyer would approach a resolution in response to the given scenario. The questions will include detailed documents with relevant and irrelevant information and facts, assessing your lawyering skills in filtering through the data to determine what is material to the case and arrive at a logical conclusion.

The MBE contains 200 multiple-choice questions divided evenly over 7 subjects. You'll notice that 7 x 25 does not equal 200. That's because 25 MBE questions are unscored questions that act as field tests for future exams. Subjects include:

  • Constitutional Law
  • Contracts/Sales
  • Criminal Law/Procedure
  • Evidence
  • Federal Civil Procedure
  • Real Property
  • Torts

You may find a complete list of subjects and subtopics here: MBE Subject Matter Outline.

UWorld MBE Sample Questions

Quality speaks for itself. Try some of our free MBE sample questions below.

Select a Question sample.

Select a Question sample.

A husband and wife were married in State A and lived there for 10 years before separating. One month later, the wife permanently moved to State B and immediately filed for divorce in a federal court in State B. The wife claims that she is entitled to $300,000 in alimony. The husband appeared in the action and has filed a motion to dismiss for lack of subject-matter jurisdiction.

Should the court grant the motion?

  1. No, because the court has diversity jurisdiction over the case.
  2. No, because the husband waived a subject-matter jurisdiction challenge by appearing in the case.
  3. Yes, because state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over this type of action.
  4. Yes, because the wife did not establish a domicile in State B.
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Explanation:

Federal diversity jurisdiction exceptions

Federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving:

  • probate matters (eg, authenticating wills, administering estates) or
  • domestic relations (eg, issuing divorce, alimony, or child-custody decrees)

A federal court must possess subject-matter jurisdiction to hear the merits of a case before it. Subject-matter jurisdiction can be established through either:

  • federal-question jurisdiction – when a claim arises under the U.S. Constitution, a treaty, or federal law (not seen here) or
  • diversity jurisdiction – when the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000 and the opposing parties are citizens of different states.

Here, diversity jurisdiction is established since the wife claims that she is entitled to $300,000 and the parties are citizens of different states (States A and B). However, federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving probate matters or domestic relations. Instead, state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over these types of actions (Choice A).* Therefore, the husband's motion to dismiss should be granted.

*The probate and domestic-relations exceptions exist because states have a strong interest in these substantive areas and are more qualified to deal with the constant judicial involvement these types of cases require.

(Choice B) A challenge to subject-matter jurisdiction is never waived. However, a challenge to personal jurisdiction is waived if the defendant has voluntarily appeared in the case, unless it was a special appearance for the express purpose of objecting to personal jurisdiction.

(Choice D) An individual is a citizen of the state where he/she is domiciled—ie, physically present with the intent to remain indefinitely. Since the wife permanently moved to State B, she has established her domicile there.

Educational objective:
Federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving probate matters or domestic relations. Instead, state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over these types of cases.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Ankenbrandt v. Richards, 504 U.S. 689, 703–04 (1992) (explaining the domestic-relations exception to diversity jurisdiction).

A congressional committee investigated the pharmaceutical industry and found that the high cost of prescription drugs purchased and sold in the United States negatively impacted the nation's economy and the health of its citizens. In response, Congress passed a statute that regulates "the retail prices of every purchase or sale of prescription drugs in the United States."

A group of pharmaceutical companies challenged the constitutionality of this statute in federal court.

What is the strongest argument in support of the constitutionality of this statute?

  1. Congress may enact statutes for the general welfare.
  2. Congress may regulate the prices of all domestic purchases and sales of goods.
  3. The Constitution grants Congress the power to regulate the interstate transportation of prescription drugs.
  4. The purchases and sales of prescription drugs in the United States substantially impact interstate commerce in the aggregate.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Commerce clause challenge

The commerce clause gives Congress broad power to regulate interstate and foreign commerce. This includes:

  • the channels of interstate and foreign commerce (eg, roadways)
  • the instrumentalities of interstate and foreign commerce (eg, vehicles)
  • persons and things moving in interstate or foreign commerce (eg, goods and services) and
  • in-state activities that, singly or in the aggregate, substantially impact interstate or foreign commerce.

Since Congress's commerce power is broad, federal statutes are constitutional if there is any rational basis for concluding that the regulated activity substantially affects interstate or foreign commerce. This can be shown through express congressional findings.

Here, the federal statute regulates the retail prices of prescription drugs in the United States. Congress has the authority to regulate such products' interstate transportation, but this statute also regulates in-state purchases and sales (Choice C). Since the congressional committee found that the high cost of prescription drugs negatively impacted the nation's economy, it is rational to conclude that their aggregated in-state purchases and sales substantially impact interstate commerce. Therefore, this is the strongest argument to support this statute.

(Choice A) The taxing and spending clause empowers Congress to tax and spend for the general welfare. But regulating prices is not equivalent to taxing or spending.

(Choice B) Congress cannot regulate the prices of every domestic purchase and sale of goods since it cannot regulate purely in-state sales that do not substantially affect interstate commerce.

Educational objective:
The commerce clause empowers Congress to regulate (1) channels and instrumentalities of, (2) persons and things moving in, and (3) in-state activities that—singly or in the aggregate—substantially affect interstate or foreign commerce.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Gonzales v. Raich, 545 U.S. 1, 17 (2005) (explaining Congress's broad authority under the commerce clause).

The owner of a new office building contracted with a well-known landscaper to design and install landscaping around the building for $30,000. The agreement was memorialized in writing, was signed by both parties, and called for a budget of $5,000 for trees, shrubs, sod, and materials. The contract required the landscaper to complete the work within six months. Due to an unexpected increase in the price of trees and shrubs, the landscaper abandoned the project and never completed any of the work.

Three years after the landscaper's deadline, the building owner sued the landscaper for breach of contract. In the jurisdiction, the statute of limitations for breach of a services contract is two years after the breach, and the statute of limitations for breach of a sale-of-goods contract is four years.

Can the owner recover damages from the landscaper?

  1. No, because the contract is divisible with respect to the services and goods, and the landscaper's breach is therefore subject to the two-year statute of limitations.
  2. No, because the contract primarily calls for services, and the landscaper's breach is therefore subject to the two-year statute of limitations.
  3. Yes, because the landscaper's breach was a result of an increase in the price of goods, and his breach is therefore subject to the four-year statute of limitations.
  4. Yes, because the landscaper's breach was willful, and he is therefore estopped from denying that his breach is subject to the four-year statute of limitations.
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Factors for determining contract's predominant purpose

Contracts for the sale of goods are governed by Article 2 of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), while contracts for services are governed by common law. However, some contracts involve the sale of goods and the rendering of services. To determine which law applies to a "mixed" or "hybrid" contract, courts ask whether its predominant purpose was the sale of goods or the rendering of services. The following factors are relevant to this determination:

  • The contract's language
  • The nature of the supplier's business (ie, whether it typically provides goods or services)
  • The relative value of the goods and services
  • The nature of the final product (ie, whether it can be described as a good or service)

Here, the building owner contracted to buy goods (eg, trees, shrubs, sod) and services (ie, designing and installing the landscaping). The owner likely hired the well-known landscaper due to his skill in performing landscaping services, and the $5,000 budget for goods was just one-sixth of the $30,000 contract price. Therefore, the contract primarily calls for services and is subject to the jurisdiction's two-year statute of limitations. And since the owner sued three years after the breach, the owner cannot recover damages from the landscaper.

(Choice A) The predominant-purpose test is unnecessary when a contract is divisible—ie, when the payment for goods can easily be separated from the payment for services. But here, the contract is likely indivisible since it combined the sale of the trees, shrubs, and sod with their installation.

(Choices C & D) The predominant-purpose test focuses on the parties' reason for entering the contract—not for breaching it. Therefore, it is irrelevant that the landscaper's breach was (1) a result of an increase in the price of goods or (2) willful.

Educational objective:
Sale-of-goods contracts are governed by the UCC, while services contracts are governed by common law. When a contract calls for the sale of goods AND the rendering of services, the contract's primary purpose determines whether the UCC or common law applies.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Bonebrake v. Cox, 499 F.2d 951, 960 (8th Cir. 1974) (applying the predominant-purpose test to determine which statute of limitations applies to a mixed contract for goods and services).
  • Princess Cruises, Inc. v. Gen. Elec. Co., 143 F.3d 828, 833 (4th Cir. 1998) (listing factors that courts consider when applying the predominant-purpose test).

A man and a woman dated for several weeks. During that time, the man repeatedly asked the woman to have sex. Each time, the woman responded that she would not have sex with the man unless they were married. One evening, the man promised the woman that they would elope the following weekend if she would agree to have sex. The woman agreed and the couple had sex. The following weekend, the man told the woman that he had no intention of eloping and only made that promise to get the woman's consent. The woman reported the man to the police, who later arrested and charged the man with rape.

Is the man guilty of rape?

  1. No, because fraud in factum did not negate the woman's consent.
  2. No, because fraud in the inducement did not negate the woman's consent.
  3. Yes, because the woman's consent was obtained by fraud in factum.
  4. Yes, because the woman's consent was obtained by fraud in the inducement.
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Explanation:

Consent to sexual intercourse obtained by fraud
Type of fraud Definition Effect
In factum
  • Fraud pertains to nature of act—eg, doctor convinces patient that sexual act is part of medical exam
  • Victim is unaware that he/she is consenting to sexual intercourse
Negates victim's consent
In inducement
  • Fraud pertains to what victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse—eg, defendant promises marriage in exchange for sex
  • Victim is aware that he/she is consenting to sexual intercourse
Does not negate victim's consent

In most modern jurisdictions, rape is defined as sexual intercourse with another without that person's consent.* This means that rape did not occur if the victim consented to sexual intercourse. However, a victim's consent may be ineffective if it was obtained by fraud. There are two types of fraud:

  • Fraud in factum – when consent is obtained by fraud regarding the nature of the act itself, leaving the victim unaware that he/she consented to sexual intercourse and negating the victim's consent
  • Fraud in the inducement – when consent is obtained by fraud regarding what the victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse, which does not negate the victim's consent

As a result, consent obtained by fraud in factum is not a valid defense to rape, but consent obtained by fraud in the inducement is a valid defense.

Here, the man falsely promised the woman that they would elope if she agreed to have sex with him. Since the woman knew that the act to which she consented was sexual intercourse, her consent was obtained by fraud in the inducement (Choices A & C). This type of fraud did not negate the woman's consent, so the man is not guilty of rape (Choice D).

*At common law, rape was defined as (1) unlawful sexual intercourse (2) with a female who is not the defendant's wife (3) against her will by force or threat of force.

Educational objective:
Fraud in factum occurs when the fraud pertains to the nature of the act itself and negates a rape victim's consent. In contrast, fraud in the inducement occurs when fraud is used to gain consent to what the victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse and does not negate the victim's consent.

A plaintiff sued a defendant for negligence to recover damages that the plaintiff suffered as a result of a crash between the two parties. At trial, the plaintiff's attorney called the plaintiff's wife to testify as to what she witnessed on the day of the crash. On cross-examination of the wife, the defendant's lawyer elicited several responses that tended to show that the plaintiff's actions constituted contributory negligence. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to ask the wife several questions on redirect examination, but the defendant's attorney objected.

What is the strongest argument that the court must allow redirect examination of the wife?

  1. The plaintiff's attorney failed to provide all significant information on direct examination.
  2. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reiterate the necessary elements of the claim.
  3. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to all matters raised on cross-examination.
  4. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to significant new matters raised on cross-examination.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Sequence and scope of witness examination

Federal Rule of Evidence 611 gives trial courts the authority to exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of examining witnesses at trial. This includes the discretion to determine whether—and to what extent—redirect examination of witnesses should be permitted. But when a party raises a significant new matter while cross-examining a witness, the court must allow the opposing party to address that matter through redirect examination.

Therefore, the strongest argument for allowing redirect examination of the plaintiff's wife is that the plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to significant new matters that were raised on cross-examination.

(Choice A) A party is expected to elicit all significant information during direct examination of a witness. Therefore, a court need not permit redirect examination to allow the party to provide information inadvertently omitted on direct examination.

(Choices B & C) Redirect examination is generally limited to significant new matters raised on cross-examination. Therefore, a party is not entitled to redirect examination to (1) reiterate information like the necessary elements of the claim or (2) reply to all matters addressed in cross-examination.

Educational objective:
When a party raises a significant new matter on cross-examination of a witness, the court must allow redirect examination by the opposing party to address that matter.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Fed. R. Evid. 611 (explaining the mode and order of examining witnesses).

Twenty years ago, a man who owned a 20-acre ranch agreed to sell all of his mineral rights to his neighbor. The man executed a warranty deed conveying the mineral estate to the neighbor, who failed to record the deed.

The following year, a woman moved her mobile home onto an undeveloped five-acre portion of the man's ranch. After the woman had lived on the property for 10 years, a local drilling company began operations on a nearby tract to drill a natural gas well. Believing that the woman owned the property, the drilling company approached the woman about leasing the mineral rights on her property and requested that the woman sign a lease of her mineral rights. The woman signed the lease as requested, and it was promptly and properly recorded. The drilling operations were successful, and the drilling company prepared to distribute profits from royalties. However, a dispute arose between the neighbor and the woman, as both parties claim ownership of the minerals.

The period of time to acquire title by adverse possession in the jurisdiction is 10 years.

In an action to determine title, is the court likely to award title to the mineral estate to the woman?

  1. No, because the woman actually possessed only the surface estate that had previously been severed from the mineral estate.
  2. No, because the woman did not actually possess the mineral estate until she signed the lease of the mineral rights.
  3. Yes, because the neighbor failed to record the warranty deed conveying the mineral estate.
  4. Yes, because the woman adversely possessed both the surface estate and the mineral estate for the statutory period.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Adverse possession of a mineral state

An adverse possessor can acquire title to land owned by another if his/her possession of the land is:

  • Open and notorious – apparent or visible to a reasonable owner
  • Continuous – uninterrupted for the statutory period
  • Exclusive – not shared with the owner
  • Actual – physical presence on the land and
  • Nonpermissive – hostile and adverse to the owner.

If the surface and mineral estates are owned by the same party, then the adverse possessor will acquire title to both estates—even if only one estate is actually possessed. But if the mineral estate has been severed from the surface estate (ie, the surface and mineral estates are owned by different parties), then the adverse possessor will only acquire title to the estate that is actually possessed. The mineral estate is actually possessed when the adverse possessor mines or drills wells on the land.

Here, the neighbor purchased the mineral estate from the man, thereby severing the mineral estate from the surface estate. And since the woman merely lived on the property for the 10-year statutory period—she did not attempt to mine or drill a well on the mineral estate—she actually possessed only the surface estate during that time (Choice D). This means that the woman did not adversely possess the mineral estate, and the court is not likely to award her title to that estate.

(Choice B) Adverse possession of a mineral estate requires the commencement of drilling or mining operations. Merely signing a lease of the mineral rights is not enough.

(Choice C) A deed need not be recorded to be valid, so the neighbor's failure to record has no impact on whether the woman adversely possessed the mineral estate.

Educational objective:
If a mineral estate has previously been severed from the surface estate (ie, surface and minerals owned by different persons), then an adverse possessor can only acquire title to the mineral estate by actually possessing the minerals (eg, by mining or drilling wells).

A teenager was riding a bicycle when she saw a classmate walking toward her. The teenager rode quickly toward the classmate, knowing that he would think she would run into him on her current trajectory. The teenager was not purposefully trying to harm or touch him. The classmate saw the teenager riding toward him and yelled at her to stop. The teenager swerved at the last moment and avoided hitting him. The classmate had a panic attack because he thought that the teenager would hit him.

Is the classmate likely to succeed if he sues the teenager for assault?

  1. No, because the teenager did not make contact with the classmate.
  2. No, because the teenager did not purposefully try to harm or touch the classmate.
  3. Yes, because the teenager acted with the requisite intent.
  4. Yes, because the teenager's conduct was extreme and outrageous.
Submit

Explanation:

Two types of intent

Assault occurs when (1) a defendant intends to cause the plaintiff to anticipate an imminent, and harmful or offensive, contact with the plaintiff's person and (2) the defendant's affirmative conduct causes the plaintiff to anticipate such contact. The intent requirement is met when the defendant acts with either:

  • purpose – the desire to cause anticipation of an imminent harmful or offensive contact or
  • knowledge – the substantial certainty that the plaintiff will suffer such anticipation.

Here, the teenager rode her bicycle directly at her classmate, causing him to think that she would hit him (anticipation of imminent contact). And since the teenager knew with substantial certainty that the classmate would think she would run into him, she acted with the requisite intent. As a result, the classmate is likely to succeed in a suit against the teenager for assault.

(Choice A) Assault merely requires that the plaintiff be placed in anticipation of imminent contact. Actual bodily contact is not required. Therefore, the fact that the teenager did not make contact with the classmate is irrelevant.

(Choice B) The intent to make contact with the plaintiff is a requirement for battery, but assault merely requires the intent to cause the plaintiff to anticipate imminent contact. Therefore, the fact that the teenager did not purposefully try to harm or touch the classmate does not absolve her of liability for assault.

(Choice D) Extreme and outrageous conduct (i.e., conduct that is unacceptable in civilized society) is an element of intentional infliction of emotional distress—not assault, which only requires intentional conduct.

Educational objective:
For assault, intent exists when a defendant acts with the purpose (desire) or knowledge (substantial certainty) that his/her conduct will cause the plaintiff to anticipate an imminent, and harmful or offensive, contact.

Bluebook Citations :
  • Restatement (Third) of Torts: Intentional Torts to Persons § 105 (Am. L. Inst., Tentative Draft No. 1, 2015) (providing the elements for assault).

Take a look at a typical competitor sample question below. Their practice questions might parody the exam, but ours consistently meet or exceed exam-level difficulty. Their limited explanations address the right answer choice but do not go the extra mile to explain the wrong choices – so you don’t make the same mistakes on exam day.

A mother gave her land to her two kids, a son, and a daughter, as joint tenants. The son built two adjoining homes on the land. He lived in one house and rented the other. The daughter lived out of the country and never visited the land. The daughter needed money, so she sold her interest in the land to her ex-boyfriend. Her ex-boyfriend immediately hired a developer to build a third home on the land. Soon after the daughter had sold her interest in the land, she was killed in a motorcycle accident. The ex-boyfriend is now asking the court for a judicial partition of the land. The son contends that upon his sister's death, he was now the sole owner of the land.

How should the court rule?

  1. For the ex-boyfriend, because he plans to live on the land.
  2. For the ex-boyfriend, because he paid for the son’s interest in the land.
  3. For the son, because he has the right of survivorship.
  4. For the son, because he has the sole position of the land.
Submit

Explanation:

Correct answer: B

Georgia MPRE Requirements

The Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE®) is a 2-hour, 60-multiple-choice question exam that assesses an examinee's knowledge of the ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct. You must register through the NCBE for 1 of 3 annual administrations (April, August, November). You can take the Georgia Bar Exam even if you haven’t taken the MPRE but Georgia requires a passing MPRE score to receive a Certificate of Eligibility to Practice Law.

Before you can practice law in Georgia, you must also pass the Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE®). The MPRE features 60 multiple-choice questions administered over two hours, and candidates must earn a scaled score of 75 or higher to be admitted into the Georgia Bar.

Georgia Bar Exam Scoring, Results and Pass Rates

The Georgia Bar Exam employs scaled scoring to ensure fairness across exam versions. Scaled scoring accounts for the fact that one exam administration may be more or less difficult than another administration. For example, February's exam may be more difficult than July's. It wouldn't be fair if you failed because you just happened to receive a harder exam version. To solve this, your raw scores are transformed into scaled scores through a statistical method called equating.

Admission into the Georgia Bar requires applicants to pass with a scaled score of 270. Each portion of the exam is weighted as follows:

  • MPT — 21.4%
  • Essay— 28.6%
  • MBE — 50%

Raw scores on the MPT will be multiplied by 1.5 and added to raw scores on the essay section. The sum of the raw scores on the written section (MPT/Essay) will then be converted to the 200-point MBE scale. The sum of your scaled MBE and written scores must be 270 or more. Applicants with a combined score between 265 and 269 will have their MPT questions and essays automatically re-graded.

GA Bar Exam results and pass rates

As is common with bar exams across the United States, the Georgia Bar Exam's pass rate for repeaters is considerably lower than for those taking it for the first time. This is likely because many repeat takers don't substantially modify their study habits.

Exam Overall Pass Rate First-Timer Pass Rate Repeater Pass Rate Results Release Date
July 2023 70% 79% 30% October 13
Feb. 2023 49% 66% 37% May 12

Below are the annual pass rates for the Georgia Bar Exam since 2016 divided into first-time examinees and repeaters:

What Makes the Georgia Bar Exam Unique?

Georgia has not adopted the Uniform Bar Exam (UBE); instead of the Multistate Essay Exam (MEE®), the Georgia Bar Exam offers Georgia-focused essays along with the MBE and MPT components.

Applicants from other jurisdictions can be admitted into the Georgia Bar without taking the GA Bar Exam if they meet ALL of the following requirements:

  • Must be a member of a reciprocating state bar (for a list of Georgia's reciprocal jurisdictions, visit Georgia Bar Admission on Motion without Examination)
  • Must have actively been practicing law for 5 of the 7 years immediately preceding the application
  • Must also meet education requirements

Foreigners may sit for the Georgia Bar Exam if they have graduated from a law school sanctioned by the foreign country's government and regulated by the state that is approved by an evaluation body or is authorized to practice law in a foreign jurisdiction. Foreigners who have been awarded an LL.M degree from an ABA-approved law school may also sit for the bar exam.

Contact details of Georgia State Bar

The Georgia Board of Bar Examiners' phone lines are open from Monday to Thursday from 8:30 am and 4:30 pm EST and on Friday from 8:00 am to 4:00 pm EST. However, the best way to contact the Board is via email.

Georgia Board of Bar Examiners Contact Information
Email [email protected]
Phone (404) 656-3490
Address Supreme Court of Georgia
Office of Bar Admissions
Nathan Deal Judicial Center
330 Capitol Avenue, SE
Suite L200
Atlanta, GA 30334

Georgia Bar Exam FAQs

The Georgia Bar Exam is administered twice a year—on the first Tuesday and Wednesday in February and July.

The UBE components of the Georgia Bar Exam are as difficult as those of other participating jurisdictions. However, its unique component is a challenge that requires diligent preparation to pass.

The GA Bar Exam lasts two days. Day one consists of the Multistate Performance Test (MPT), which lasts 3 hours (90 minutes for each task), followed by the four Georgia-specific essay questions lasting 3 hours (45 minutes each). Day two consists of the MBE, which lasts 6 hours (3 hours per session).

There is a $400 base fee to apply for both days of the Georgia Bar Exam and a $98 NCBE filing fee. Final filing deadlines are January 15, 2024, and June 15, 2024, for the February and July exams, respectively. Late filing requires a fee of $500.

To take the bar exam in Georgia, you must have a JD or LL.M. degree from an approved law school.

Georgia has no limits on the number of times you can take the bar exam, meaning if you fail the bar exam on your first try, you can keep trying until you pass.

Students typically take about 8-10 weeks of full-time study leading up to the Georgia Bar Exam.

Your MBE, MPT, and essay scores are scaled and combined. If your score is 265 or higher, or lower than the passing score (270), your MPT and essay papers will automatically be regraded.

For the most recently released results (July 2023), the overall pass rate was 70% for all test-takers, 79% for first-time test-takers, and 30% for repeat takers.

No. Georgia does not currently accept MBE scores from other jurisdictions.

To become a licensed attorney in Georgia, you must graduate with a JD from an ABA-approved law school, pass the bar exam, and be admitted to the Georgia bar by The Georgia Office of Bar Admissions.

You must have a law degree (JD) from an ABA-approved law school to practice law in Georgia.

To request non-standard testing accommodations, you must complete an application and submit it.

References

Deadlines and Fees for Fitness Application and Bar Exam Application

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