The Connecticut Bar Exam | The Ultimate Guide (2024)

Get ready for the 2024 Connecticut Bar Exam. Learn exam dates, costs, scores, pass rates, results, requirements, subjects, and practice with sample questions.
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The Connecticut Bar Exam implemented the Uniform Bar Examination (UBE®) format starting in February 2017. The UBE is composed of three parts: the Multistate Bar Examination (MBE®), the Multistate Performance Test (MPT®), and the Multistate Essay Examination (MEE®).

Individuals considering practicing law in another state can benefit from increased score portability among the 41 participating UBE jurisdictions. This article offers comprehensive information on CT Bar Exam results, dates, deadlines, fees, applications, and more.

On January 26, 2024, Connecticut announced that it will replace the UBE with the NextGen Bar Exam beginning July 2026.

Connecticut Bar Exam Structure

The Uniform Bar Examination is administered over two days and consists of a writing section (MPT/MEE) and a multiple-choice section (MBE).

  • Day 1 : MPT/MEE
  • Day 2 : MBE
MBE

The MBE is weighted at 50% of the UBE, making it the most heavily weighted section of the Connecticut Bar Exam. Examinees will have two 3-hour sessions to answer 200 multiple-choice questions.

MEE

The MEE is weighted at 30% of the UBE and is administered on day one. Examinees have 3 hours to answer six 30-minute essay questions.

MPT

The MPT is weighted at 20% of the UBE and is administered on day one. Examinees are provided with faux case files imitating realistic scenarios and a folder with various legal documents, which they must use to respond to assignments.

Connecticut Bar Exam Dates, Requirements, and Scheduling

Aside from saving you stress, preparing your application for the Connecticut Bar Exam and submitting it before the first filing deadline will save you $100. See below for important deadlines, dates, and fees.

Exam dates

Examinees can begin filing their applications for the Connecticut Bar Exam from October 1, 2023, for the February 2024 exam, and March 1, 2024, for the July 2024 exam. There is an $800 application filing fee and an additional $100 fee for late filing.

Filing Periods February 27-28, 2024  Exam July 30-31, 2024 Exam
Application Opens October 1, 2023 March 1, 2024
First Filing Deadline October 31, 2023 March 31, 2024
Final Filing Deadline November 30, 2023 April 30, 2024

Requirements

To sit for the Connecticut Bar Exam, you must have a Juris Doctorate Degree (JD) from a law school approved by the American Bar Association (ABA) or by the Connecticut Bar Examining Committee (CBEC) in accordance with Article II-1(B).

After you pass the bar, you must undergo a character and fitness screening to prove that you are worthy of the trust and confidence of your clients. Determinations of good moral character and fitness are made at the time of admission.

Forms required to prove your education, character, and fitness can be found here.

Scheduling

To schedule your appointment to take the Connecticut Bar Exam, you'll first need to download the free Adobe Acrobat® Reader 8 to fill out and save forms. Print your application on 8 ½" x 11" paper and mail it with the required attachments and fees. There is no electronic filing. Make sure that all questions are answered fully unless it is clearly stated that they can be skipped.

Connecticut Bar Exam Cost and Fees

Filing your Connecticut Bar Exam application after the first filing deadline will cost you an extra $100. Costs and fees for transferring scores, foreign applicants, and more are tabulated below.

Application Fees
Application to Take the Bar Exam $800
Other Application Fees
Bar Exam Application Late Filing $900
UBE Score Transfer $750
Application for Admission without Examination $1800
Petition for Determination on Foreign Education $500
Application Fee for Foreign Legal Consultant $500
Miscellaneous Fees
Copy of Filed Application $15
Transmittal of MBE score  $25
Replacement of Exam Scores and Info $15
Certified Copy of Previously Filed Application $15
Investigation under Sec. 2-8(8) $50
Laptop Fee $125

Payment policies

Fees are non-refundable and must be made out to the "Connecticut Bar Examining Committee". Only certified checks or money orders are accepted. They must be sent to:

Direct Mail Email
Connecticut Bar Examining Committee 100 Washington Street, 1st Floor, Hartford, CT 06106-4411 [email protected]

Re-takers who have a fee credit from a previous Connecticut Bar Exam must email the CBEC Administrative Office before they submit their online application.

Cost-saving options

An $800 application fee is no small expense. Fortunately, there are ways to save money on the CT Bar Exam. The Connecticut Bar Association (CBA) runs the CBA Future of the Legal Profession Scholarship Program (FLPSP), which seeks to increase diversity in the legal community. 

Participants receive financial assistance for LSAT prep courses and invitations to events and programs that will aid them as they pursue their legal education. They also receive mentoring and networking opportunities and help submitting law school and grant applications. 

Here are the eligibility requirements:

  • Recent graduate, junior or senior, of a Connecticut college or university.
  • Plan on graduating from an accredited law school in Connecticut.
  • Preference is given to members of the following communities: Women, LGBTQ+, Religious minority, Indigenous group, Asian, Black/African-American, Native Hawaiian/Pacific Islander, Hispanic/Latinx, or individuals with disabilities.

Connecticut Bar Exam Subjects and Topics

The Connecticut Bar Exam assesses an individual's analytical and reasoning skills, as well as their grasp of fundamental legal principles. Additionally, as Connecticut has adopted the Uniform Bar Examination (UBE) program, a passing score on the exam signifies that the examinee is qualified and capable of practicing law in the 40 other participating states.

MEE: Testable subjects

The MEE consists of six 30-minute essay questions. Each question involves one or more of the subjects listed below. Some subjects may be paired together. Other subjects could be omitted. While it's impossible to know which subjects the National Conference of Bar Examiners (NCBE®) will choose on any given exam version, some have been tested more frequently than others historically.

For example, Civil Procedure has appeared on nearly every MEE in the past decade, while Criminal Law has only appeared several times. However, subjects that occur less frequently on their own may be paired with others. Our MEE Study Guide and Prep Tips provides all the details you need to focus your studies on what's essential and use your time efficiently.

MEE Subjects 
Business Associations Evidence
Civil Procedure Family Law
Conflicts of Law Real Property
Constitutional Law Secured Transactions
Contracts Torts
Criminal Law & Procedure Trusts & Estates

Check out our MEE Subject Matter Outline for detailed explanations of MEE subjects and sub-topics.

MPT: Testable items

The MPT consists of closed-universe practical questions with instructions, factual data, cases, statutes, and other reference material supplied by examiners. Candidates will answer two cases presenting simulated real-life scenarios in the fictional jurisdiction of "Franklin." These tasks are designed so examinees can demonstrate their lawyering skills using only materials provided by the bar examiners. Each case is assessed on a 6-point scale, with a 6 being the highest possible score and a 0 being the lowest possible score.

Testable subjects on the MBE

The MBE contains 200 multiple-choice questions divided evenly over 7 subjects. You'll notice that 7 x 25 does not equal 200. That's because 25 MBE questions are unscored questions that the NCBE field tests for future exams. There is no way to identify which questions are scored or unscored, so it's best to imagine that they are all just as important. MBE subjects are as follows:

UWorld MBE Sample Questions

Quality speaks for itself. Try some of our free MBE sample questions below.

Select a Question sample.

Select a Question sample.

A husband and wife were married in State A and lived there for 10 years before separating. One month later, the wife permanently moved to State B and immediately filed for divorce in a federal court in State B. The wife claims that she is entitled to $300,000 in alimony. The husband appeared in the action and has filed a motion to dismiss for lack of subject-matter jurisdiction.

Should the court grant the motion?

  1. No, because the court has diversity jurisdiction over the case.
  2. No, because the husband waived a subject-matter jurisdiction challenge by appearing in the case.
  3. Yes, because state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over this type of action.
  4. Yes, because the wife did not establish a domicile in State B.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Federal diversity jurisdiction exceptions

Federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving:

  • probate matters (eg, authenticating wills, administering estates) or
  • domestic relations (eg, issuing divorce, alimony, or child-custody decrees)

A federal court must possess subject-matter jurisdiction to hear the merits of a case before it. Subject-matter jurisdiction can be established through either:

  • federal-question jurisdiction – when a claim arises under the U.S. Constitution, a treaty, or federal law (not seen here) or
  • diversity jurisdiction – when the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000 and the opposing parties are citizens of different states.

Here, diversity jurisdiction is established since the wife claims that she is entitled to $300,000 and the parties are citizens of different states (States A and B). However, federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving probate matters or domestic relations. Instead, state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over these types of actions (Choice A).* Therefore, the husband's motion to dismiss should be granted.

*The probate and domestic-relations exceptions exist because states have a strong interest in these substantive areas and are more qualified to deal with the constant judicial involvement these types of cases require.

(Choice B) A challenge to subject-matter jurisdiction is never waived. However, a challenge to personal jurisdiction is waived if the defendant has voluntarily appeared in the case, unless it was a special appearance for the express purpose of objecting to personal jurisdiction.

(Choice D) An individual is a citizen of the state where he/she is domiciled—ie, physically present with the intent to remain indefinitely. Since the wife permanently moved to State B, she has established her domicile there.

Educational objective:
Federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving probate matters or domestic relations. Instead, state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over these types of cases.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Ankenbrandt v. Richards, 504 U.S. 689, 703–04 (1992) (explaining the domestic-relations exception to diversity jurisdiction).

A congressional committee investigated the pharmaceutical industry and found that the high cost of prescription drugs purchased and sold in the United States negatively impacted the nation's economy and the health of its citizens. In response, Congress passed a statute that regulates "the retail prices of every purchase or sale of prescription drugs in the United States."

A group of pharmaceutical companies challenged the constitutionality of this statute in federal court.

What is the strongest argument in support of the constitutionality of this statute?

  1. Congress may enact statutes for the general welfare.
  2. Congress may regulate the prices of all domestic purchases and sales of goods.
  3. The Constitution grants Congress the power to regulate the interstate transportation of prescription drugs.
  4. The purchases and sales of prescription drugs in the United States substantially impact interstate commerce in the aggregate.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Commerce clause challenge

The commerce clause gives Congress broad power to regulate interstate and foreign commerce. This includes:

  • the channels of interstate and foreign commerce (eg, roadways)
  • the instrumentalities of interstate and foreign commerce (eg, vehicles)
  • persons and things moving in interstate or foreign commerce (eg, goods and services) and
  • in-state activities that, singly or in the aggregate, substantially impact interstate or foreign commerce.

Since Congress's commerce power is broad, federal statutes are constitutional if there is any rational basis for concluding that the regulated activity substantially affects interstate or foreign commerce. This can be shown through express congressional findings.

Here, the federal statute regulates the retail prices of prescription drugs in the United States. Congress has the authority to regulate such products' interstate transportation, but this statute also regulates in-state purchases and sales (Choice C). Since the congressional committee found that the high cost of prescription drugs negatively impacted the nation's economy, it is rational to conclude that their aggregated in-state purchases and sales substantially impact interstate commerce. Therefore, this is the strongest argument to support this statute.

(Choice A) The taxing and spending clause empowers Congress to tax and spend for the general welfare. But regulating prices is not equivalent to taxing or spending.

(Choice B) Congress cannot regulate the prices of every domestic purchase and sale of goods since it cannot regulate purely in-state sales that do not substantially affect interstate commerce.

Educational objective:
The commerce clause empowers Congress to regulate (1) channels and instrumentalities of, (2) persons and things moving in, and (3) in-state activities that—singly or in the aggregate—substantially affect interstate or foreign commerce.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Gonzales v. Raich, 545 U.S. 1, 17 (2005) (explaining Congress's broad authority under the commerce clause).

The owner of a new office building contracted with a well-known landscaper to design and install landscaping around the building for $30,000. The agreement was memorialized in writing, was signed by both parties, and called for a budget of $5,000 for trees, shrubs, sod, and materials. The contract required the landscaper to complete the work within six months. Due to an unexpected increase in the price of trees and shrubs, the landscaper abandoned the project and never completed any of the work.

Three years after the landscaper's deadline, the building owner sued the landscaper for breach of contract. In the jurisdiction, the statute of limitations for breach of a services contract is two years after the breach, and the statute of limitations for breach of a sale-of-goods contract is four years.

Can the owner recover damages from the landscaper?

  1. No, because the contract is divisible with respect to the services and goods, and the landscaper's breach is therefore subject to the two-year statute of limitations.
  2. No, because the contract primarily calls for services, and the landscaper's breach is therefore subject to the two-year statute of limitations.
  3. Yes, because the landscaper's breach was a result of an increase in the price of goods, and his breach is therefore subject to the four-year statute of limitations.
  4. Yes, because the landscaper's breach was willful, and he is therefore estopped from denying that his breach is subject to the four-year statute of limitations.
Submit Next Question
Factors for determining contract's predominant purpose

Contracts for the sale of goods are governed by Article 2 of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), while contracts for services are governed by common law. However, some contracts involve the sale of goods and the rendering of services. To determine which law applies to a "mixed" or "hybrid" contract, courts ask whether its predominant purpose was the sale of goods or the rendering of services. The following factors are relevant to this determination:

  • The contract's language
  • The nature of the supplier's business (ie, whether it typically provides goods or services)
  • The relative value of the goods and services
  • The nature of the final product (ie, whether it can be described as a good or service)

Here, the building owner contracted to buy goods (eg, trees, shrubs, sod) and services (ie, designing and installing the landscaping). The owner likely hired the well-known landscaper due to his skill in performing landscaping services, and the $5,000 budget for goods was just one-sixth of the $30,000 contract price. Therefore, the contract primarily calls for services and is subject to the jurisdiction's two-year statute of limitations. And since the owner sued three years after the breach, the owner cannot recover damages from the landscaper.

(Choice A) The predominant-purpose test is unnecessary when a contract is divisible—ie, when the payment for goods can easily be separated from the payment for services. But here, the contract is likely indivisible since it combined the sale of the trees, shrubs, and sod with their installation.

(Choices C & D) The predominant-purpose test focuses on the parties' reason for entering the contract—not for breaching it. Therefore, it is irrelevant that the landscaper's breach was (1) a result of an increase in the price of goods or (2) willful.

Educational objective:
Sale-of-goods contracts are governed by the UCC, while services contracts are governed by common law. When a contract calls for the sale of goods AND the rendering of services, the contract's primary purpose determines whether the UCC or common law applies.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Bonebrake v. Cox, 499 F.2d 951, 960 (8th Cir. 1974) (applying the predominant-purpose test to determine which statute of limitations applies to a mixed contract for goods and services).
  • Princess Cruises, Inc. v. Gen. Elec. Co., 143 F.3d 828, 833 (4th Cir. 1998) (listing factors that courts consider when applying the predominant-purpose test).

A man and a woman dated for several weeks. During that time, the man repeatedly asked the woman to have sex. Each time, the woman responded that she would not have sex with the man unless they were married. One evening, the man promised the woman that they would elope the following weekend if she would agree to have sex. The woman agreed and the couple had sex. The following weekend, the man told the woman that he had no intention of eloping and only made that promise to get the woman's consent. The woman reported the man to the police, who later arrested and charged the man with rape.

Is the man guilty of rape?

  1. No, because fraud in factum did not negate the woman's consent.
  2. No, because fraud in the inducement did not negate the woman's consent.
  3. Yes, because the woman's consent was obtained by fraud in factum.
  4. Yes, because the woman's consent was obtained by fraud in the inducement.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Consent to sexual intercourse obtained by fraud
Type of fraud Definition Effect
In factum
  • Fraud pertains to nature of act—eg, doctor convinces patient that sexual act is part of medical exam
  • Victim is unaware that he/she is consenting to sexual intercourse
Negates victim's consent
In inducement
  • Fraud pertains to what victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse—eg, defendant promises marriage in exchange for sex
  • Victim is aware that he/she is consenting to sexual intercourse
Does not negate victim's consent

In most modern jurisdictions, rape is defined as sexual intercourse with another without that person's consent.* This means that rape did not occur if the victim consented to sexual intercourse. However, a victim's consent may be ineffective if it was obtained by fraud. There are two types of fraud:

  • Fraud in factum – when consent is obtained by fraud regarding the nature of the act itself, leaving the victim unaware that he/she consented to sexual intercourse and negating the victim's consent
  • Fraud in the inducement – when consent is obtained by fraud regarding what the victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse, which does not negate the victim's consent

As a result, consent obtained by fraud in factum is not a valid defense to rape, but consent obtained by fraud in the inducement is a valid defense.

Here, the man falsely promised the woman that they would elope if she agreed to have sex with him. Since the woman knew that the act to which she consented was sexual intercourse, her consent was obtained by fraud in the inducement (Choices A & C). This type of fraud did not negate the woman's consent, so the man is not guilty of rape (Choice D).

*At common law, rape was defined as (1) unlawful sexual intercourse (2) with a female who is not the defendant's wife (3) against her will by force or threat of force.

Educational objective:
Fraud in factum occurs when the fraud pertains to the nature of the act itself and negates a rape victim's consent. In contrast, fraud in the inducement occurs when fraud is used to gain consent to what the victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse and does not negate the victim's consent.

A plaintiff sued a defendant for negligence to recover damages that the plaintiff suffered as a result of a crash between the two parties. At trial, the plaintiff's attorney called the plaintiff's wife to testify as to what she witnessed on the day of the crash. On cross-examination of the wife, the defendant's lawyer elicited several responses that tended to show that the plaintiff's actions constituted contributory negligence. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to ask the wife several questions on redirect examination, but the defendant's attorney objected.

What is the strongest argument that the court must allow redirect examination of the wife?

  1. The plaintiff's attorney failed to provide all significant information on direct examination.
  2. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reiterate the necessary elements of the claim.
  3. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to all matters raised on cross-examination.
  4. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to significant new matters raised on cross-examination.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Sequence and scope of witness examination

Federal Rule of Evidence 611 gives trial courts the authority to exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of examining witnesses at trial. This includes the discretion to determine whether—and to what extent—redirect examination of witnesses should be permitted. But when a party raises a significant new matter while cross-examining a witness, the court must allow the opposing party to address that matter through redirect examination.

Therefore, the strongest argument for allowing redirect examination of the plaintiff's wife is that the plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to significant new matters that were raised on cross-examination.

(Choice A) A party is expected to elicit all significant information during direct examination of a witness. Therefore, a court need not permit redirect examination to allow the party to provide information inadvertently omitted on direct examination.

(Choices B & C) Redirect examination is generally limited to significant new matters raised on cross-examination. Therefore, a party is not entitled to redirect examination to (1) reiterate information like the necessary elements of the claim or (2) reply to all matters addressed in cross-examination.

Educational objective:
When a party raises a significant new matter on cross-examination of a witness, the court must allow redirect examination by the opposing party to address that matter.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Fed. R. Evid. 611 (explaining the mode and order of examining witnesses).

Twenty years ago, a man who owned a 20-acre ranch agreed to sell all of his mineral rights to his neighbor. The man executed a warranty deed conveying the mineral estate to the neighbor, who failed to record the deed.

The following year, a woman moved her mobile home onto an undeveloped five-acre portion of the man's ranch. After the woman had lived on the property for 10 years, a local drilling company began operations on a nearby tract to drill a natural gas well. Believing that the woman owned the property, the drilling company approached the woman about leasing the mineral rights on her property and requested that the woman sign a lease of her mineral rights. The woman signed the lease as requested, and it was promptly and properly recorded. The drilling operations were successful, and the drilling company prepared to distribute profits from royalties. However, a dispute arose between the neighbor and the woman, as both parties claim ownership of the minerals.

The period of time to acquire title by adverse possession in the jurisdiction is 10 years.

In an action to determine title, is the court likely to award title to the mineral estate to the woman?

  1. No, because the woman actually possessed only the surface estate that had previously been severed from the mineral estate.
  2. No, because the woman did not actually possess the mineral estate until she signed the lease of the mineral rights.
  3. Yes, because the neighbor failed to record the warranty deed conveying the mineral estate.
  4. Yes, because the woman adversely possessed both the surface estate and the mineral estate for the statutory period.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Adverse possession of a mineral state

An adverse possessor can acquire title to land owned by another if his/her possession of the land is:

  • Open and notorious – apparent or visible to a reasonable owner
  • Continuous – uninterrupted for the statutory period
  • Exclusive – not shared with the owner
  • Actual – physical presence on the land and
  • Nonpermissive – hostile and adverse to the owner.

If the surface and mineral estates are owned by the same party, then the adverse possessor will acquire title to both estates—even if only one estate is actually possessed. But if the mineral estate has been severed from the surface estate (ie, the surface and mineral estates are owned by different parties), then the adverse possessor will only acquire title to the estate that is actually possessed. The mineral estate is actually possessed when the adverse possessor mines or drills wells on the land.

Here, the neighbor purchased the mineral estate from the man, thereby severing the mineral estate from the surface estate. And since the woman merely lived on the property for the 10-year statutory period—she did not attempt to mine or drill a well on the mineral estate—she actually possessed only the surface estate during that time (Choice D). This means that the woman did not adversely possess the mineral estate, and the court is not likely to award her title to that estate.

(Choice B) Adverse possession of a mineral estate requires the commencement of drilling or mining operations. Merely signing a lease of the mineral rights is not enough.

(Choice C) A deed need not be recorded to be valid, so the neighbor's failure to record has no impact on whether the woman adversely possessed the mineral estate.

Educational objective:
If a mineral estate has previously been severed from the surface estate (ie, surface and minerals owned by different persons), then an adverse possessor can only acquire title to the mineral estate by actually possessing the minerals (eg, by mining or drilling wells).

A teenager was riding a bicycle when she saw a classmate walking toward her. The teenager rode quickly toward the classmate, knowing that he would think she would run into him on her current trajectory. The teenager was not purposefully trying to harm or touch him. The classmate saw the teenager riding toward him and yelled at her to stop. The teenager swerved at the last moment and avoided hitting him. The classmate had a panic attack because he thought that the teenager would hit him.

Is the classmate likely to succeed if he sues the teenager for assault?

  1. No, because the teenager did not make contact with the classmate.
  2. No, because the teenager did not purposefully try to harm or touch the classmate.
  3. Yes, because the teenager acted with the requisite intent.
  4. Yes, because the teenager's conduct was extreme and outrageous.
Submit

Explanation:

Two types of intent

Assault occurs when (1) a defendant intends to cause the plaintiff to anticipate an imminent, and harmful or offensive, contact with the plaintiff's person and (2) the defendant's affirmative conduct causes the plaintiff to anticipate such contact. The intent requirement is met when the defendant acts with either:

  • purpose – the desire to cause anticipation of an imminent harmful or offensive contact or
  • knowledge – the substantial certainty that the plaintiff will suffer such anticipation.

Here, the teenager rode her bicycle directly at her classmate, causing him to think that she would hit him (anticipation of imminent contact). And since the teenager knew with substantial certainty that the classmate would think she would run into him, she acted with the requisite intent. As a result, the classmate is likely to succeed in a suit against the teenager for assault.

(Choice A) Assault merely requires that the plaintiff be placed in anticipation of imminent contact. Actual bodily contact is not required. Therefore, the fact that the teenager did not make contact with the classmate is irrelevant.

(Choice B) The intent to make contact with the plaintiff is a requirement for battery, but assault merely requires the intent to cause the plaintiff to anticipate imminent contact. Therefore, the fact that the teenager did not purposefully try to harm or touch the classmate does not absolve her of liability for assault.

(Choice D) Extreme and outrageous conduct (i.e., conduct that is unacceptable in civilized society) is an element of intentional infliction of emotional distress—not assault, which only requires intentional conduct.

Educational objective:
For assault, intent exists when a defendant acts with the purpose (desire) or knowledge (substantial certainty) that his/her conduct will cause the plaintiff to anticipate an imminent, and harmful or offensive, contact.

Bluebook Citations :
  • Restatement (Third) of Torts: Intentional Torts to Persons § 105 (Am. L. Inst., Tentative Draft No. 1, 2015) (providing the elements for assault).

Take a look at a typical competitor sample question. Their practice questions might parody the exam, but ours consistently meet or exceed exam-level difficulty. Their limited explanations address the correct answer choice but do not go the extra mile to explain the wrong choices – so you don’t make the same mistakes on exam day.

A mother gave her land to her two kids, a son, and a daughter, as joint tenants. The son built two adjoining homes on the land. He lived in one house and rented the other. The daughter lived out of the country and never visited the land. The daughter needed money, so she sold her interest in the land to her ex-boyfriend. Her ex-boyfriend immediately hired a developer to build a third home on the land. Soon after the daughter had sold her interest in the land, she was killed in a motorcycle accident. The ex-boyfriend is now asking the court for a judicial partition of the land. The son contends that upon his sister's death, he was now the sole owner of the land.

How should the court rule?

  1. For the ex-boyfriend, because he plans to live on the land.
  2. For the ex-boyfriend, because he paid for the son’s interest in the land.
  3. For the son, because he has the right of survivorship.
  4. For the son, because he has the sole position of the land.
Submit

Explanation:

Correct answer: B

Connecticut Bar Exam Scoring/Grading

To be admitted to the Connecticut Bar, applicants must pass the UBE with a minimum scaled score of 266 out of 400. Exam weightage is divided between the three sections:

  • MBE- 50%
  • MEE- 30%
  • MPT- 20%

MEE and MPT scores are combined and scaled out of 200. Therefore, the writing section (MEE/MPT) and the multiple-choice section (MBE) each comprise 50% of your total UBE scaled score (or 200 points each). If you do poorly on one exam section, you can make up for it on the other, as long as these scores combine to a sum of 266 or more.

Note that your raw score is not the same as your scaled score. For example, getting 133 of 200 MBE questions correct does not necessarily mean you've earned 133 scaled points. Scaled scoring is employed to ensure fairness across exam versions. This scoring model is true for all three sections of the bar exam.

For example, July's exam may be more difficult than February's. It would be unfair to allow someone to pass or fail based on the relative difficulty of their exam version. Therefore, examinees' raw scores are transformed into scaled scores through a statistical method called equating. Unfortunately, the NCBE does not release data on the calculations it uses to determine scaled scores.

Connecticut MPRE minimum passing score

The Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE®) features 60 multiple-choice questions administered over two hours. You must pass the MPRE with a minimum score of 80 before being admitted to the Connecticut bar. Check out our article, About the MPRE, to learn more.

Connecticut Bar Exam Results and Pass Rates

As is typical with bar exams across the country, the Connecticut Bar Exam's repeater pass rate is markedly lower than the first-timer pass rate. This phenomenon is likely because many examinees who failed the first time haven't changed their study habits significantly.

Exam Overall
Pass Rate 		First-Timer
Pass Rate 		Repeater
Pass Rate 		Results
Release Date
July 2023 56% 67% 16% September 29, 2023
Feb. 2023 35% 57% 24% April 21, 2023

Below are the annual pass rates for the CT Bar Exam since 2017 divided into first-time examinees and repeaters:

Connecticut Bar exam results

In Connecticut, bar exam results are typically released and posted on the State of Connecticut Judicial Branch website about 2 months following the administration of the exam.

Connecticut Bar Exam Reciprocity

Connecticut offers reciprocity with the jurisdictions listed in the table below. Applicants must be licensed in at least one of these jurisdictions, and the applicant must have been actively practicing law for at least 5 of the 10 years leading up to their submission. Here is a checklist for admission without examination.

Alabama Michigan Oregon
Alaska Minnesota Pennsylvania
Arkansas Mississippi South Dakota
Colorado Missouri Tennessee
District of Columbia Montana Texas
Georgia Nebraska Utah
Illinois New Hampshire Vermont
Indiana New Jersey Virgin Islands, US
Iowa New Mexico Virginia
Kansas New York Washington
Kentucky North Carolina West Virginia
Maine North Dakota Wisconsin
Maryland Ohio Wyoming
Massachusetts Oklahoma  

Applicants must meet the same requirements as those applying for the CT Bar through examination: Obtain a JD from an ABA or Committee approved law school, be deemed of good moral character and fit to practice law, and earn an 80 or higher on the MPRE. If an applicant has failed the CT Bar Exam within the last five years, they cannot apply for admission without examination.

Connecticut Bar Exam for Foreigners

Foreign applicants may qualify for admission to take the CT Bar Exam if they have graduated with a JD from an ABA or Committee approved law school and have been deemed of good moral character and fit to practice law. Alternatively, the applicant must meet all of the following criteria:

  • Have successfully completed academic requirements to legally practice law in their country
  • Attended a program that met ABA or Committee standards in both duration and quality
  • Obtain an LL.M. degree at an ABA or Committee approved law school in the US

What Makes the Connecticut Bar Exam Unique?

Connecticut does not have any state-specific pre-legal educational requirements. However, 12 hours of post-admission continuing legal education (CLE) are required to hold onto your license.

Contact details of the Connecticut State Bar

If you wish to contact the Connecticut State Bar Admissions office with inquiries regarding the Connecticut Bar Exam, please see the details below.

Medium Info
Phone Number (860) 706-5135
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Email  [email protected] 
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Connecticut Bar Exam FAQs

No, you must have graduated from an ABA or committee-approved law school to take the bar exam in Connecticut.
The bar exam in Connecticut spans two days and totals 12 hours of exam time—that’s 6 hours per day, excluding breaks.
It costs $800 to apply to sit for the Connecticut Bar Exam. Filing deadlines for the February 2024 exam are October 31, 2023 (timely filing) and November 30, 2023 (final filing). July 2024 exam deadlines are March 31, 2024 (timely filing) and April 30, 2024 (late filing).
The Connecticut Bar Exam is as hard as all other UBE jurisdictions’ bar exams as they all follow the same format.
It takes approximately 400 hours to study for the CT Bar Exam. Most students begin studying 8-10 weeks out. However, beginning sooner can increase retention and decrease burnout, so we recommend starting as early as 4-6 months out, if possible.
The minimum passing UBE score for Connecticut is 266.
There is no restriction on how many times you can take the Connecticut Bar Exam.
If you fail the Connecticut Bar Exam you can transfer the fees you’ve paid to the next exam.
Yes, Connecticut offers reciprocity with these jurisdictions.
Yes, you can transfer your MBE score to Connecticut from another UBE jurisdiction because the MBE is a component of the UBE. You can also transfer the MBE score alone if you meet the following criteria.
Yes, you can transfer your MBE score from Connecticut to another UBE jurisdiction because the MBE is a component of the UBE.
The maximum age for UBE scores in Connecticut is 5 years.
No, you cannot practice law without a law degree in Connecticut.
Admission without examination in Connecticut requires that applicants have graduated from an ABA or Committee approved law school, are in good standing in the jurisdiction in which they practice law, and have transferable UBE and MPRE scores that meet Connecticut’s minimum score requirements.
Foreign candidates for the Connecticut Bar Exam must prove that they have met all educational requirements for foreigners.
To become a licensed attorney in Connecticut, you must obtain an undergraduate degree, take the LSAT, graduate with a JD from an ABA or Committee approved law school, and be deemed of good moral character and fit to practice law.
If you would like to request special accommodations for the Connecticut Bar Exam you need to download and fill out a Petition for Non-Standard Testing Conditions.
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