Illinois Bar Exam | The Ultimate Guide (2024)

Get ready for the 2024 Illinois Bar Exam. Learn exam dates, costs, scores, pass rates, results, requirements, subjects, and practice with sample questions
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The Illinois Bar Exam adopted the Uniform Bar Exam (UBE® ) on June 8, 2018, and began administering it in July 2019. The UBE is broken into three sections—the Multistate Bar Examination (MBE®), the Multistate Performance Test (MPT®), and the Multistate Essay Examination (MEE®). The UBE has been adopted by 41 jurisdictions to date, enabling successful examinees to transfer scores more easily between jurisdictions. This article provides everything you need regarding IL Bar Exam results, dates, deadlines, fees, applications, and more.

Illinois Bar Exam Structure

The Illinois Bar Exam follows the same structure as all UBE administering jurisdictions.

  • Day 1 : Multistate Performance Test (MPT), Multistate Essay Exam (MEE)
  • Day 2 : Multistate Bar Exam (MBE)

The MEE is weighted at 30% of the UBE. Examinees will have 3 hours to answer six 30-minute essay questions on the afternoon of the first exam day.

The MPT is weighted at 20% of the UBE and administered on the exam's first day. Examinees have to complete two items in 90 minutes each using a file of legal materials.

The MBE is weighted at 50% of the UBE and consists of 200 multiple-choice questions administered in 2 three-hour sessions on the second exam day.

Illinois Bar Exam Dates, Requirements, and Scheduling

Preparing your application for the Illinois Bar Exam and submitting it before the first deadline will save you hundreds of dollars. See below for important deadlines, dates, and fees.

Exam Dates

The first filing deadlines for applications for the Illinois State Bar Exam are September 15, 2023, and February 15, 2024, for the 2024 February and July exams, respectively. You may submit your application after the first deadline; however, you will incur additional fees for timely or late filing.

HAVE NOT previously registered for an IL Bar Exam
Filing Periods February 27-28, 2024 July 30-31, 2024 Fee
First Filing Deadline September 15, 2023 February 15, 2024 $950
Timely Filing September 16 -
November 1, 2023
February 16 -
April 1, 2024
$1,150
Late Filing November 2, 2023 -
November 30, 2023
April 2 - April 30, 2024 $1,450
HAVE previously registered for an IL Bar Exam
Filing Periods February 27-28, 2024 July 30-31, 2024 Fee
First Filing Deadline November 1, 2023 April 30, 2024 $500
Timely Filing November 2, 2023 -
November 30, 2023
X $850

Applicants seeking to sit for the Illinois Bar Exam must have completed a minimum of 90 semester hours at a college or university approved by the Board of Admissions to the Bar or from a program commensurate with such standards. In addition, applicants must obtain a JD from an American Bar Association (ABA) approved law school.

Additionally, one must prove that they are of good moral character and fitness by filing a character and fitness application with the Board of Admissions.

Scheduling

To schedule your IL State Bar Exam, you must complete a two-part application consisting of (1) an online application and (2) paper documents that must be sent to the Illinois Board of Admissions to the Bar. These documents must include the following:

  • Your driving record for the previous 10 years for any jurisdiction you held a driver's license
  • Per your Character and Fitness questionnaire, any police reports/citations and court records/documents.
  • Testing accommodation forms (if necessary)

You can begin the application process at the Illinois Board of Admissions website.

Illinois Bar Exam Costs and Fees

Illinois Bar Exam application fees are broken down into three graduated tiers depending on filing periods. The later you file, the more you pay. All fees are tabulated below:

  • Timely Bar Exam Application Fee
    • First Time: $950
    • Re-application: $500
  • Admission to Motion: $1,250
  • UBE Score Transfer: $1,250
  • First Late: +$200
  • Second Late: +$500
  • Late (have previously registered): +$350
  • UBE Unofficial Score Transcript: $25
  • Laptop Registration Fee: $120

Payments must be made with a credit or debit card (Mastercard, Visa, or Discover) following completion of your application, or with a cashier’s check, certified check, or money order in US dollars. All filing fees are nonrefundable and cannot be transferred. If your payment is not received by the filing deadline, your application will be considered invalid.

Cost-Saving Options

With filing fees and exam preparation costs, gaining admission into any bar can be expensive. Thankfully, options such as scholarships and grants are available to mitigate your fees or avoid paying for them yourself.

For example, the Chicago Bar Foundation awards scholarships and fellowship programs to make it easier for committed attorneys to pursue their chosen line of work by easing the burden of the financial challenges they face with surging law school debt.

Other Illinois Bar Exam cost-savings resources include:

As an Illinois Bar Exam applicant, we encourage you to explore these and other resources and apply to as many available scholarships for which you are eligible to help you with bar exam and/or bar prep costs.

Illinois Bar Exam Subjects and Topics

The Illinois Bar Exam requires candidates to answer questions on the sections and subjects listed below.

Multistate Essay Exam (MEE)

The MEE consists of six 30-minute essay questions designed to assess your ability to:

  • analyze the facts of a hypothetical case,
  • distinguish between relevant and irrelevant materials to the case,
  • articulate in writing a rational analysis of the relevant legal issues presented in a well-reasoned essay, and
  • show an understanding of the legal principles pertinent to the resolution of the case based on the facts presented

Ultimately, these essays test your ability to think like a lawyer, using logical reasoning to arrive at evidence-based conclusions from the details and facts in a case.

Among the topics tested on the MEE are:

  • Business Associations
  • Civil Procedure
  • Conflicts of Law
  • Constitutional Law
  • Contracts
  • Criminal Law & Procedure
  • Evidence
  • Family Law
  • Real Property
  • Secured Transactions
  • Torts
  • Trusts & Estates

MEE subjects are different on every exam version. For example, subjects may be paired or omitted altogether. Historically, some subjects (e.g., civil procedure) have appeared frequently, while others (e.g., criminal law) are rarely tested. Additional information on the list of subjects and subtopics can be found on our MEE Subject Matter Outline page.

Multistate Performance Test (MPT)

Illinois offers two 90-minute performance test questions that present a legal scenario and challenge you to identify the correct course of action an attorney should take in response to that scenario. The questions will provide detailed instructions on completing the case, documents containing relevant and irrelevant facts, and the relevant and irrelevant legal authorities required to complete the case.

Both MPT questions assess your legal analytics competencies and ability to distinguish between relevant and irrelevant facts, evaluate their reliability, and determine if the given facts are enough to reach a logical conclusion.

Multistate Bar Exam (MBE)

The MBE is a six-hour, 200-question multiple-choice examination administered in two sessions, one in the morning and the other in the afternoon. Each three-hour session consists of 100 questions. The MBE evaluates a bar applicant's ability to apply fundamental legal principles and legal reasoning to analyze given fact patterns. The following is a list of subjects tested on the MBE:

You may find a complete list of subjects and subtopics here: MBE Subject Matter Outline.

UWorld MBE Sample Questions

Quality speaks for itself. Try some of our free MBE sample questions below.

Select a Question sample.

Select a Question sample.

A husband and wife were married in State A and lived there for 10 years before separating. One month later, the wife permanently moved to State B and immediately filed for divorce in a federal court in State B. The wife claims that she is entitled to $300,000 in alimony. The husband appeared in the action and has filed a motion to dismiss for lack of subject-matter jurisdiction.

Should the court grant the motion?

  1. No, because the court has diversity jurisdiction over the case.
  2. No, because the husband waived a subject-matter jurisdiction challenge by appearing in the case.
  3. Yes, because state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over this type of action.
  4. Yes, because the wife did not establish a domicile in State B.
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Explanation:

Federal diversity jurisdiction exceptions

Federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving:

  • probate matters (eg, authenticating wills, administering estates) or
  • domestic relations (eg, issuing divorce, alimony, or child-custody decrees)

A federal court must possess subject-matter jurisdiction to hear the merits of a case before it. Subject-matter jurisdiction can be established through either:

  • federal-question jurisdiction – when a claim arises under the U.S. Constitution, a treaty, or federal law (not seen here) or
  • diversity jurisdiction – when the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000 and the opposing parties are citizens of different states.

Here, diversity jurisdiction is established since the wife claims that she is entitled to $300,000 and the parties are citizens of different states (States A and B). However, federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving probate matters or domestic relations. Instead, state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over these types of actions (Choice A).* Therefore, the husband's motion to dismiss should be granted.

*The probate and domestic-relations exceptions exist because states have a strong interest in these substantive areas and are more qualified to deal with the constant judicial involvement these types of cases require.

(Choice B) A challenge to subject-matter jurisdiction is never waived. However, a challenge to personal jurisdiction is waived if the defendant has voluntarily appeared in the case, unless it was a special appearance for the express purpose of objecting to personal jurisdiction.

(Choice D) An individual is a citizen of the state where he/she is domiciled—ie, physically present with the intent to remain indefinitely. Since the wife permanently moved to State B, she has established her domicile there.

Educational objective:
Federal courts cannot exercise diversity jurisdiction over cases involving probate matters or domestic relations. Instead, state courts have exclusive jurisdiction over these types of cases.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Ankenbrandt v. Richards, 504 U.S. 689, 703–04 (1992) (explaining the domestic-relations exception to diversity jurisdiction).

A congressional committee investigated the pharmaceutical industry and found that the high cost of prescription drugs purchased and sold in the United States negatively impacted the nation's economy and the health of its citizens. In response, Congress passed a statute that regulates "the retail prices of every purchase or sale of prescription drugs in the United States."

A group of pharmaceutical companies challenged the constitutionality of this statute in federal court.

What is the strongest argument in support of the constitutionality of this statute?

  1. Congress may enact statutes for the general welfare.
  2. Congress may regulate the prices of all domestic purchases and sales of goods.
  3. The Constitution grants Congress the power to regulate the interstate transportation of prescription drugs.
  4. The purchases and sales of prescription drugs in the United States substantially impact interstate commerce in the aggregate.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Commerce clause challenge

The commerce clause gives Congress broad power to regulate interstate and foreign commerce. This includes:

  • the channels of interstate and foreign commerce (eg, roadways)
  • the instrumentalities of interstate and foreign commerce (eg, vehicles)
  • persons and things moving in interstate or foreign commerce (eg, goods and services) and
  • in-state activities that, singly or in the aggregate, substantially impact interstate or foreign commerce.

Since Congress's commerce power is broad, federal statutes are constitutional if there is any rational basis for concluding that the regulated activity substantially affects interstate or foreign commerce. This can be shown through express congressional findings.

Here, the federal statute regulates the retail prices of prescription drugs in the United States. Congress has the authority to regulate such products' interstate transportation, but this statute also regulates in-state purchases and sales (Choice C). Since the congressional committee found that the high cost of prescription drugs negatively impacted the nation's economy, it is rational to conclude that their aggregated in-state purchases and sales substantially impact interstate commerce. Therefore, this is the strongest argument to support this statute.

(Choice A) The taxing and spending clause empowers Congress to tax and spend for the general welfare. But regulating prices is not equivalent to taxing or spending.

(Choice B) Congress cannot regulate the prices of every domestic purchase and sale of goods since it cannot regulate purely in-state sales that do not substantially affect interstate commerce.

Educational objective:
The commerce clause empowers Congress to regulate (1) channels and instrumentalities of, (2) persons and things moving in, and (3) in-state activities that—singly or in the aggregate—substantially affect interstate or foreign commerce.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Gonzales v. Raich, 545 U.S. 1, 17 (2005) (explaining Congress's broad authority under the commerce clause).

The owner of a new office building contracted with a well-known landscaper to design and install landscaping around the building for $30,000. The agreement was memorialized in writing, was signed by both parties, and called for a budget of $5,000 for trees, shrubs, sod, and materials. The contract required the landscaper to complete the work within six months. Due to an unexpected increase in the price of trees and shrubs, the landscaper abandoned the project and never completed any of the work.

Three years after the landscaper's deadline, the building owner sued the landscaper for breach of contract. In the jurisdiction, the statute of limitations for breach of a services contract is two years after the breach, and the statute of limitations for breach of a sale-of-goods contract is four years.

Can the owner recover damages from the landscaper?

  1. No, because the contract is divisible with respect to the services and goods, and the landscaper's breach is therefore subject to the two-year statute of limitations.
  2. No, because the contract primarily calls for services, and the landscaper's breach is therefore subject to the two-year statute of limitations.
  3. Yes, because the landscaper's breach was a result of an increase in the price of goods, and his breach is therefore subject to the four-year statute of limitations.
  4. Yes, because the landscaper's breach was willful, and he is therefore estopped from denying that his breach is subject to the four-year statute of limitations.
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Factors for determining contract's predominant purpose

Contracts for the sale of goods are governed by Article 2 of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), while contracts for services are governed by common law. However, some contracts involve the sale of goods and the rendering of services. To determine which law applies to a "mixed" or "hybrid" contract, courts ask whether its predominant purpose was the sale of goods or the rendering of services. The following factors are relevant to this determination:

  • The contract's language
  • The nature of the supplier's business (ie, whether it typically provides goods or services)
  • The relative value of the goods and services
  • The nature of the final product (ie, whether it can be described as a good or service)

Here, the building owner contracted to buy goods (eg, trees, shrubs, sod) and services (ie, designing and installing the landscaping). The owner likely hired the well-known landscaper due to his skill in performing landscaping services, and the $5,000 budget for goods was just one-sixth of the $30,000 contract price. Therefore, the contract primarily calls for services and is subject to the jurisdiction's two-year statute of limitations. And since the owner sued three years after the breach, the owner cannot recover damages from the landscaper.

(Choice A) The predominant-purpose test is unnecessary when a contract is divisible—ie, when the payment for goods can easily be separated from the payment for services. But here, the contract is likely indivisible since it combined the sale of the trees, shrubs, and sod with their installation.

(Choices C & D) The predominant-purpose test focuses on the parties' reason for entering the contract—not for breaching it. Therefore, it is irrelevant that the landscaper's breach was (1) a result of an increase in the price of goods or (2) willful.

Educational objective:
Sale-of-goods contracts are governed by the UCC, while services contracts are governed by common law. When a contract calls for the sale of goods AND the rendering of services, the contract's primary purpose determines whether the UCC or common law applies.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Bonebrake v. Cox, 499 F.2d 951, 960 (8th Cir. 1974) (applying the predominant-purpose test to determine which statute of limitations applies to a mixed contract for goods and services).
  • Princess Cruises, Inc. v. Gen. Elec. Co., 143 F.3d 828, 833 (4th Cir. 1998) (listing factors that courts consider when applying the predominant-purpose test).

A man and a woman dated for several weeks. During that time, the man repeatedly asked the woman to have sex. Each time, the woman responded that she would not have sex with the man unless they were married. One evening, the man promised the woman that they would elope the following weekend if she would agree to have sex. The woman agreed and the couple had sex. The following weekend, the man told the woman that he had no intention of eloping and only made that promise to get the woman's consent. The woman reported the man to the police, who later arrested and charged the man with rape.

Is the man guilty of rape?

  1. No, because fraud in factum did not negate the woman's consent.
  2. No, because fraud in the inducement did not negate the woman's consent.
  3. Yes, because the woman's consent was obtained by fraud in factum.
  4. Yes, because the woman's consent was obtained by fraud in the inducement.
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Explanation:

Consent to sexual intercourse obtained by fraud
Type of fraud Definition Effect
In factum
  • Fraud pertains to nature of act—eg, doctor convinces patient that sexual act is part of medical exam
  • Victim is unaware that he/she is consenting to sexual intercourse
Negates victim's consent
In inducement
  • Fraud pertains to what victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse—eg, defendant promises marriage in exchange for sex
  • Victim is aware that he/she is consenting to sexual intercourse
Does not negate victim's consent

In most modern jurisdictions, rape is defined as sexual intercourse with another without that person's consent.* This means that rape did not occur if the victim consented to sexual intercourse. However, a victim's consent may be ineffective if it was obtained by fraud. There are two types of fraud:

  • Fraud in factum – when consent is obtained by fraud regarding the nature of the act itself, leaving the victim unaware that he/she consented to sexual intercourse and negating the victim's consent
  • Fraud in the inducement – when consent is obtained by fraud regarding what the victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse, which does not negate the victim's consent

As a result, consent obtained by fraud in factum is not a valid defense to rape, but consent obtained by fraud in the inducement is a valid defense.

Here, the man falsely promised the woman that they would elope if she agreed to have sex with him. Since the woman knew that the act to which she consented was sexual intercourse, her consent was obtained by fraud in the inducement (Choices A & C). This type of fraud did not negate the woman's consent, so the man is not guilty of rape (Choice D).

*At common law, rape was defined as (1) unlawful sexual intercourse (2) with a female who is not the defendant's wife (3) against her will by force or threat of force.

Educational objective:
Fraud in factum occurs when the fraud pertains to the nature of the act itself and negates a rape victim's consent. In contrast, fraud in the inducement occurs when fraud is used to gain consent to what the victim knows is an act of sexual intercourse and does not negate the victim's consent.

A plaintiff sued a defendant for negligence to recover damages that the plaintiff suffered as a result of a crash between the two parties. At trial, the plaintiff's attorney called the plaintiff's wife to testify as to what she witnessed on the day of the crash. On cross-examination of the wife, the defendant's lawyer elicited several responses that tended to show that the plaintiff's actions constituted contributory negligence. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to ask the wife several questions on redirect examination, but the defendant's attorney objected.

What is the strongest argument that the court must allow redirect examination of the wife?

  1. The plaintiff's attorney failed to provide all significant information on direct examination.
  2. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reiterate the necessary elements of the claim.
  3. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to all matters raised on cross-examination.
  4. The plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to significant new matters raised on cross-examination.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Sequence and scope of witness examination

Federal Rule of Evidence 611 gives trial courts the authority to exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of examining witnesses at trial. This includes the discretion to determine whether—and to what extent—redirect examination of witnesses should be permitted. But when a party raises a significant new matter while cross-examining a witness, the court must allow the opposing party to address that matter through redirect examination.

Therefore, the strongest argument for allowing redirect examination of the plaintiff's wife is that the plaintiff's attorney seeks to reply to significant new matters that were raised on cross-examination.

(Choice A) A party is expected to elicit all significant information during direct examination of a witness. Therefore, a court need not permit redirect examination to allow the party to provide information inadvertently omitted on direct examination.

(Choices B & C) Redirect examination is generally limited to significant new matters raised on cross-examination. Therefore, a party is not entitled to redirect examination to (1) reiterate information like the necessary elements of the claim or (2) reply to all matters addressed in cross-examination.

Educational objective:
When a party raises a significant new matter on cross-examination of a witness, the court must allow redirect examination by the opposing party to address that matter.

Bluebook Citations :

  • Fed. R. Evid. 611 (explaining the mode and order of examining witnesses).

Twenty years ago, a man who owned a 20-acre ranch agreed to sell all of his mineral rights to his neighbor. The man executed a warranty deed conveying the mineral estate to the neighbor, who failed to record the deed.

The following year, a woman moved her mobile home onto an undeveloped five-acre portion of the man's ranch. After the woman had lived on the property for 10 years, a local drilling company began operations on a nearby tract to drill a natural gas well. Believing that the woman owned the property, the drilling company approached the woman about leasing the mineral rights on her property and requested that the woman sign a lease of her mineral rights. The woman signed the lease as requested, and it was promptly and properly recorded. The drilling operations were successful, and the drilling company prepared to distribute profits from royalties. However, a dispute arose between the neighbor and the woman, as both parties claim ownership of the minerals.

The period of time to acquire title by adverse possession in the jurisdiction is 10 years.

In an action to determine title, is the court likely to award title to the mineral estate to the woman?

  1. No, because the woman actually possessed only the surface estate that had previously been severed from the mineral estate.
  2. No, because the woman did not actually possess the mineral estate until she signed the lease of the mineral rights.
  3. Yes, because the neighbor failed to record the warranty deed conveying the mineral estate.
  4. Yes, because the woman adversely possessed both the surface estate and the mineral estate for the statutory period.
Submit Next Question

Explanation:

Adverse possession of a mineral state

An adverse possessor can acquire title to land owned by another if his/her possession of the land is:

  • Open and notorious – apparent or visible to a reasonable owner
  • Continuous – uninterrupted for the statutory period
  • Exclusive – not shared with the owner
  • Actual – physical presence on the land and
  • Nonpermissive – hostile and adverse to the owner.

If the surface and mineral estates are owned by the same party, then the adverse possessor will acquire title to both estates—even if only one estate is actually possessed. But if the mineral estate has been severed from the surface estate (ie, the surface and mineral estates are owned by different parties), then the adverse possessor will only acquire title to the estate that is actually possessed. The mineral estate is actually possessed when the adverse possessor mines or drills wells on the land.

Here, the neighbor purchased the mineral estate from the man, thereby severing the mineral estate from the surface estate. And since the woman merely lived on the property for the 10-year statutory period—she did not attempt to mine or drill a well on the mineral estate—she actually possessed only the surface estate during that time (Choice D). This means that the woman did not adversely possess the mineral estate, and the court is not likely to award her title to that estate.

(Choice B) Adverse possession of a mineral estate requires the commencement of drilling or mining operations. Merely signing a lease of the mineral rights is not enough.

(Choice C) A deed need not be recorded to be valid, so the neighbor's failure to record has no impact on whether the woman adversely possessed the mineral estate.

Educational objective:
If a mineral estate has previously been severed from the surface estate (ie, surface and minerals owned by different persons), then an adverse possessor can only acquire title to the mineral estate by actually possessing the minerals (eg, by mining or drilling wells).

A teenager was riding a bicycle when she saw a classmate walking toward her. The teenager rode quickly toward the classmate, knowing that he would think she would run into him on her current trajectory. The teenager was not purposefully trying to harm or touch him. The classmate saw the teenager riding toward him and yelled at her to stop. The teenager swerved at the last moment and avoided hitting him. The classmate had a panic attack because he thought that the teenager would hit him.

Is the classmate likely to succeed if he sues the teenager for assault?

  1. No, because the teenager did not make contact with the classmate.
  2. No, because the teenager did not purposefully try to harm or touch the classmate.
  3. Yes, because the teenager acted with the requisite intent.
  4. Yes, because the teenager's conduct was extreme and outrageous.
Submit

Explanation:

Two types of intent

Assault occurs when (1) a defendant intends to cause the plaintiff to anticipate an imminent, and harmful or offensive, contact with the plaintiff's person and (2) the defendant's affirmative conduct causes the plaintiff to anticipate such contact. The intent requirement is met when the defendant acts with either:

  • purpose – the desire to cause anticipation of an imminent harmful or offensive contact or
  • knowledge – the substantial certainty that the plaintiff will suffer such anticipation.

Here, the teenager rode her bicycle directly at her classmate, causing him to think that she would hit him (anticipation of imminent contact). And since the teenager knew with substantial certainty that the classmate would think she would run into him, she acted with the requisite intent. As a result, the classmate is likely to succeed in a suit against the teenager for assault.

(Choice A) Assault merely requires that the plaintiff be placed in anticipation of imminent contact. Actual bodily contact is not required. Therefore, the fact that the teenager did not make contact with the classmate is irrelevant.

(Choice B) The intent to make contact with the plaintiff is a requirement for battery, but assault merely requires the intent to cause the plaintiff to anticipate imminent contact. Therefore, the fact that the teenager did not purposefully try to harm or touch the classmate does not absolve her of liability for assault.

(Choice D) Extreme and outrageous conduct (i.e., conduct that is unacceptable in civilized society) is an element of intentional infliction of emotional distress—not assault, which only requires intentional conduct.

Educational objective:
For assault, intent exists when a defendant acts with the purpose (desire) or knowledge (substantial certainty) that his/her conduct will cause the plaintiff to anticipate an imminent, and harmful or offensive, contact.

Bluebook Citations :
  • Restatement (Third) of Torts: Intentional Torts to Persons § 105 (Am. L. Inst., Tentative Draft No. 1, 2015) (providing the elements for assault).

Take a look at a typical competitor sample question below. Their practice questions might parody the exam, but ours consistently meet or exceed exam-level difficulty. Their limited explanations address the right answer choice but do not go the extra mile to explain the wrong choices – so you don’t make the same mistakes on exam day.

A mother gave her land to her two kids, a son, and a daughter, as joint tenants. The son built two adjoining homes on the land. He lived in one house and rented the other. The daughter lived out of the country and never visited the land. The daughter needed money, so she sold her interest in the land to her ex-boyfriend. Her ex-boyfriend immediately hired a developer to build a third home on the land. Soon after the daughter had sold her interest in the land, she was killed in a motorcycle accident. The ex-boyfriend is now asking the court for a judicial partition of the land. The son contends that upon his sister's death, he was now the sole owner of the land.

How should the court rule?

  1. For the ex-boyfriend, because he plans to live on the land.
  2. For the ex-boyfriend, because he paid for the son’s interest in the land.
  3. For the son, because he has the right of survivorship.
  4. For the son, because he has the sole position of the land.
Submit

Explanation:

Correct answer: B

Illinois MPRE Requirements

The Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE®) is a 2-hour, 60-multiple-choice question exam that assesses an examinee's knowledge of the ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct. Bar candidates with MPRE scores from 1999 or later must have their scores transferred from the NCBE. MPRE scores from 1998 or earlier must be obtained from the Illinois Board of Admissions to the Bar. Transferring your MPRE score from Illinois to another jurisdiction, or to yourself, requires you to submit an MPRE Score Transfer or Advisory Request form with a $25 fee.

Illinois MPRE Minimum Passing Score

Before you can practice law in Illinois, you must also pass the Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE®). Illinois requires a minimum MPRE passing score of 80 or more.

Illinois Bar Exam Scoring/Grading

To be admitted to the Ohio Bar, applicants must pass the UBE with a minimum scaled score of 266 out of 400. Exam weightage is divided between the three sections as follows:

  • MBE - 50%
  • MEE - 30%
  • MPT - 20%

The MEE and MPT are combined for 50% of the bar exam and are graded as such. Therefore, the writing section (MEE/MPT) and the multiple-choice section (MBE) each comprise 50%, or 200 points, of your total scaled score. If you do poorly on one section of the exam, you can make up for it on the other, as long as these scores combine to a sum of 266 or more.

Note that getting 133 of 200 questions correct on the writing section does not necessarily mean you've earned 133 scaled points. Scaled scoring is employed to ensure fairness across exam versions. This scoring model is true for all three sections of the bar exam.

For example, July's exam may be more difficult than February's. It would be unfair to allow someone to pass or fail based on the relative difficulty of their exam version. Therefore, examinees' raw scores are transformed into scaled scores through a statistical method called equating. Unfortunately, the NCBE does not release data on the calculations it uses to determine scaled scores.

Illinois Bar Exam Results

Illinois Bar Exam results are typically released approximately six weeks following the February exam and 8-10 weeks following the July exam. For example, the February 2023 exam results were released on April 3, 2023 while the Illinois July 2022 exam results were released on September 30, 2022. Results are posted on the examinee's private user accounts.

Illinois Bar Exam Pass Rates

As is typical with bar exams across the country, the Illinois Bar Exam's repeater pass rate is markedly lower than the first-timer pass rate. This phenomenon is likely because many students who failed the first time haven't changed their study habits significantly.

Illinois Bar Exam Reciprocity

Illinois's Admission on Motion Procedure is no longer based on bar reciprocity. Instead, attorneys meeting the following requirements may apply for admission:

  • Preliminary Education and Undergraduate Degree: Have completed four years of high school education, or have met other requirements to enroll in a college or university with similar admission requirements to the University of Illinois. Attorneys must have completed at least 90 semester hours of college coursework.
  • Law Degree: Have earned a professional Juris Doctorate from an ABA-approved law school.
  • Character and Fitness: Have met all appropriate character and fitness standards.
  • Good Standing and Prior Bar Exam: Have not failed the Illinois Bar Exam within the past five years.
  • The Practice of Law: Have been practicing law actively and continuously over five of the past seven years, and are currently on active status in at least one jurisdiction.

Attorneys from the following states may be admitted on motion to the Illinois Bar: AK, CO, CT, DC, GA, GU, IN, IA, KY, MA, MI, MN, MO, NE, NH, NMI, NY, NC, ND, OH, OK, PA, TN, TX, USVI, UT, VT, VA, WA, WV, WI, and WY.

What Makes the Illinois Bar Exam Unique?

The Illinois Bar Exam adheres to the uniform bar exam structure adopted by 41 other jurisdictions. However, the state of Illinois requires that successful bar applicants take 30 hours of post-admission mandatory continuing legal education every 2 years. Members of the Illinois State Bar Association (ISBA) can earn credit hours by completing on-demand courses provided by the ISBA.

Illinois Bar Exam for Foreigners

According to the Illinois Board of Admissions, lawyers who completed their legal education in a foreign country (outside the US) must meet the following three requirements in order to sit for the Illinois bar examination. To gain eligibility to attempt the Illinois Bar Exam as a foreign lawyer, you must:

  1. Must have maintained a license to practice law in the country where you received your law degree and/or the highest court of law in any US state, territory, or the District of Columbia for a minimum of 5 years;
  2. Must be currently in good standing as an attorney or equivalent in that country, and/or any US jurisdiction you are admitted to practice;
  3. Must have verifiably devoted a minimum of 1,000 hours annually to practicing law in the country where you are licensed, and/or in any US jurisdiction(s) where you've been licensed for 5 of the 7 years immediately before applying in Illinois.

Note: You can only become eligible to apply for permission to sit for the bar examination under Rule 715 If you meet ALL three of the above threshold requirements.

Contact Details of Illinois State Bar

The Board of Admissions answers calls Monday through Friday from 8:30 am to 4 pm CST, except for state and federal holidays.

Illinois Board of Bar Examiners Contact Information
Medium Info
Phone Number 217-522-5917
Fax Number 217-522-3728
Address Illinois Board of Admissions to the Bar
625 S College Street
Springfield IL 62704-2521

Illinois Bar Exam FAQs

The Illinois Bar Exam is administered twice a year, on the last Tuesday and Wednesday in February and July.

The Illinois Bar Exam lasts two days, with the MEE and MPT lasting 3 hours each, and the MBE lasting 6 hours (Two 3-hour sessions).

To take the Bar Exam in Illinois, applicants must have obtained a JD from an ABA-approved law school.

The first filing deadlines for the Illinois Bar Exam application are September 15, 2023, and February 15, 2024, for the 2024 February and July exams, respectively. Applications require a $950 fee, which increases to $1,150 or $1,450, depending on when you file.

Illinois does not have a set limit on the number of times you can take the IL State Bar Exam; so, if you fail the bar exam on your first attempt, you can come up with a new game plan and perform better the next time.

Judging by the pass rates from the past three administrations, the Illinois Bar Exam is as challenging as those administered in other UBE jurisdictions.

It takes 400 hours to study for the Illinois State Bar Exam. Study time will vary depending on your educational background and study habits. Many examinees begin studying 8-10 weeks out. However, starting 4-6 months out will decrease burnout and increase retention.

Illinois UBE Bar Exam is scored on a 400-point scale, with a minimum passing score of 266 or greater. Weightages are as follows: MPT 20%, MEE 30%, and MBE 50%.

The most recent February 2023 pass rates were 43% for all test-takers, 62% for first-time test-takers, and 35% for repeat test-takers.

Illinois does not accept concurrent testing with other jurisdictions. UBE applicants from other jurisdictions must take the MEE, MPT, and MBE in Illinois. For any jurisdiction, UBE applicants must take all three portions of the examination (MPT, MEE, and MBE) in the same UBE jurisdiction and in the same exam administration to earn a portable UBE score.

Attorneys from the following states may be admitted on motion to the Illinois Bar: AK, CO, CT, DC, GA, GU, IN, IA, KY, MA, MI, MN, MO, NE, NH, NMI, NY, NC, ND, OH, OK, PA, TN, TX, USVI, UT, VT, VA, WA, WV, WI, and WY.

To become a licensed attorney in Illinois, you must graduate with a JD from an ABA-approved law school, score over 80 on the MPRE and over 266 on the UBE, and be deemed to be of good moral character and fitness.

No, you cannot practice law without a law degree in Illinois.

To request special accommodations for the Illinois Bar Exam, you must request “nonstandard testing accommodations” (NTA) through the Applicant Request for NTA form before the final filing deadline of your respective exam.

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